2014年1月30日星期四

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Exam Code: 132-S-712
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.2 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.3 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.6 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.8 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.9 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.10 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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2014年1月29日星期三

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Exam Code: ISEB-ITILF
Exam Name: ISEB (The Foundation Examination - ITIL®)
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Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What is a RACI model used for.?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

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NO.2 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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NO.3 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.4 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.6 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.11 Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.13 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D

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NO.17 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D

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NO.19 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.20 The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSMP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSMP - Information Systems Security Management Professional)
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Total Q&A: 218 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.4 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.5 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-732
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.2 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

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NO.3 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

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NO.4 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

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NO.7 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

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NO.8 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

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NO.11 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

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NO.12 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

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NO.13 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

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NO.15 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

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NO.16 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

IBM braindump   000-732 exam simulations   000-732   000-732 test questions   000-732

NO.17 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

IBM braindump   000-732 exam simulations   000-732   000-732 test questions   000-732

NO.18 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

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NO.19 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

IBM braindump   000-732 exam simulations   000-732   000-732 test questions   000-732

NO.20 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 000-415
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two statements are true of the column data types used in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose
two.)
A.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are varchar and integer.
B.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are int32 and string [max=30].
C.Orchestrate schema column data types are the same as those used in DataStage stages.
D.OSH import operators are needed to convert data read from sequential files into schema types.
Correct:B D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.2 A job has two input sources that need to be combined. Each input source exceeds available
physical memory. The files are in the same format and must be combined using a key value. It is
guaranteed that there will be at least one match. Given the above scenario, which stage would
consume the least amount of physical memory?
A.Merge
B.Funnel
C.Lookup
D.Transformer
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.3 Which statement about job parameter usage is true?
A.You can use environment variables to set parameter values linked to the Job Sequence.
B.You can change the parameter values in an initialization file linked to a Job Sequence .ini file.
C.Changes to the job parameters in the Designer do not require a recompile to be applied to the job.
D.You can change job parameters while a job is running and the changes will immediately be applied
mid-job.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.4 In which two scenarios should a sparse lookup be used in place of a normal lookup to retrieve
data from an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.When the Oracle database is on the same system as the DataStage server.
B.When the number of input rows is significantly larger than the number of rows in the lookup table.
C.When the number of input rows is significantly smaller than the number of rows in the lookup table.
D.A database function that returns the current value of an Oracle object is required as part of the result set.
Correct:C D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.5 Job run details for a specific invocation of a multi-instance job can be viewed by which two
clients? (Choose two.)
A.dsjob
B.dsjobinfo
C.DataStage Director
D.DataStage Manager
Correct:A C

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.6 An XML file is being processed by the XML Input stage. How can repetition elements be
identified on the stage?
A.Set the "Key" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
B.Check the "Repetition Element Required" box on the output link tab.
C.Set the "Nullable" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
D.No special settings are required. XML Input stage automatically detects the repetition element from the
XPath expression.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.7 The last two steps of a job are an Aggregator stage using the Hash method and a Sequential File
stage with a Collector type of Auto that creates a comma delimited output file for use by a
common spreadsheet program. The job runs a long time because data volumes have increased.
Which two changes would improve performance? (Choose two.)
A.Change the Sequential stage to use a Sort Merge collector on the aggregation keys.
B.Change the Sequential stage to a Data Set stage to allow the write to occur in parallel.
C.Change the Aggregator stage to use the sort method. Hash and sort on the aggregation keys.
D.Change the Aggregator stage to a Transformer stage and use stage variables to accumulate the
aggregations.
Correct:A C

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.8 Which statement describes a process for capturing a COBOL copybook from a z/OS system?
A.Select the COBOL copybook using the Browse button and capture the COBOL copybook with Manager.
B.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in binary and capture the metadata through
Manager.
C.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in text mode and capture the copybook with
Manager.
D.FTP the COBOL copybook to the server platform in text mode and capture the metadata through
Manager.
Correct:C

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.9 Which two statements about performance tuning a DataStage EE environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A.Overall job design has a minimal impact in actual real-world performance.
B.Only adjust buffer tuning parameters after examining other performance factors.
C.A single, optimized configuration file will yield best performance for all jobs and be easier to administer.
D.Performance tuning is an iterative process - adjust one item at a time and examine the results in
isolation.
Correct:B D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.10 Establishing a consistent naming standard for link names is useful in which two ways?
(Choose two.)
A.using less memory at job runtime
B.specifying link order without having to specify stage properties to generate correct results
C.improving developer productivity and quality by distinguishing link names within stage editors
D.easing use of captured job statistics (eg. row counts in an XML file) by processes or users outside of
DataStage
Correct:C D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.11 How does a Join stage process an Inner join?
A.It transfers records from the input data sets whose key columns contain equal values to the output data
set.
B.It transfers all values from the left data set but transfers values from the right data set and intermediate
data sets only when key columns match.
C.It transfers all values from the right data set and transfers values from the left data set and intermediate
data sets only where key columns match.
D.It transfers records in which the contents of the key columns are equal from the left and right input data
sets to the output data set. It also transfers records whose key columns contain unequal values from both
input data sets to the output data set.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.12 Click the Task button. You have been asked to improve the performance of a job. A consultant
has convinced your manager that sorts and partitions are major contributors to the performance
issues being experienced since they are specified as "auto". Both the aggregation and join are
done on Zip (postal) code. Place the appropriate sort/aggregation specifications on the links.
Correct:
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.13 Which three are valid ways within a Job Sequence to pass parameters to Activity stages?
(Choose three.)
A.Routine Activity stage
B.Sequencer Activity stage
C.UserVariables Activity stage
D.ExecCommand Activity stage
E.Nested Condition Activity stage
Correct:A C D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.14 What is the purpose of the uv command in a UNIX DataStage server?
A.Start and stop the DataStage engine.
B.Report DataStage client connections.
C.Cleanup resources from a failed DataStage job.
D.Provide read access to a DataStage EE configuration file.
Correct:A

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.15 Which command can be used to execute DataStage jobs from a UNIX shell script?
A.osh
B.dsjob
C.DSRunJob
D.DSExecute
Correct:B

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.16 A customer is interested in selecting the right RDBMS environment to run DataStage
Enterprise Edition to solve a multi-file and relational database data merge. The customer realizes
the value of running in parallel and is interested in knowing which RDBMS stage will match the
internal data partitioning of a given RDBMS. Which RDBMS stage will satisfy the customer's
request?
A.ODBC Enterprise
B.Oracle Enterprise
C.Sybase Enterprise
D.DB2/UDB Enterprise
Correct:D

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.17 Which three are valid trigger expressions in a stage in a Job Sequence? (Choose three.)
A.Unconditional
B.Equality(Conditional)
C.Custom(Conditional)
D.Difference(Conditional)
E.ReturnValue(Conditional)
Correct:A C E

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.18 Which statement is true about Aggregator Sort and Hash methods when the
APT_NO_SORT_INSERTION environment variable is set to TRUE?
A.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have the partition sorted by
the group key.
B.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have been partition sorted by
the group key.
C.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
performing the aggregation.
D.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
building a hash table in memory.
Correct:B

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.19 Which two tasks will create DataStage projects? (Choose two.)
A.Install the DataStage engine.
B.Copy a project in DataStage Administrator.
C.Add new projects from DataStage Administrator.
D.Export and import a DataStage project from DataStage Manager.
Correct:A C

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

NO.20 Which two can be implemented in a Job Sequence using job parameters? (Choose two.)
A.All options of the Start Loop Activity stage.
B.Name of a job to be executed by a Job Activity stage.
C.A command to be executed by a Routine Activity stage.
D.The body of the email notification activity using the user interface.
Correct:A C

IBM test answers   000-415   000-415 test answers

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Exam Code: 000-R18
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS ACE V5 Technical Professional)
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Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following CANNOT be performed at both the terminal and controller?
A. Cashier Loan
B. Terminal Monitor
C. Cashier Reconciliation
D. Department Totals Report
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tender verification is supported through ACE's implementation of which of the following files?
A. Customer File
B. Tender Listing File
C. Tender Verification File
D. Customer Account Status file
Answer: C

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NO.3 SurePOS ACE verifies tenders by checking the account number entered during the transaction against
the:
A. Customer Data file.
B. Tender Listing file.
C. Customer Activity file.
D. Tender Verification file.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The following percentage tax plans are set up with conventional rounding: 1=4% 2=1.5% 3=.5%
4=not set up The item record for item 81382 has: Tax Plan A [*] Tax Plan B [ ] Tax Plan C [*] Tax
Plan D [ ] The item record for 81382 has a unit price of $3.00. How much tax will be charged for
selling quantity 1 of 81382?
A. 12 cents
B. 13 cents
C. 14 cents
D. 19 cents
Answer: C

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NO.5 The immediate override limit applies to limits specified in which of the following options?
A. Price Override and Item Limits
B. Transaction Limits and Item Limits
C. Price Override and Department Groups
D. Transaction Limits and Department Groups
Answer: C

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NO.6 After displaying the food stamp total during an order, which of the following statements is true?
A. Amount of food stamps tendered is displayed.
B. No tax amounts can be included in the amount displayed.
C. Additional food stamp ineligible items cannot be entered.
D. Food stamps can only be tendered for the amount displayed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How many varieties can each ACE tender have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.8 The item record for a bottle of soda in Department 4 has its linked item field filled in with 1234, and has
its Links To Deposit flag turned on. Item 1234 is designated as a Deposit Item type with a value of 10
cents. If 10 bottles of soda are sold during the day, where does the total deposit amount get reflected in
the Department Totals Report?
A. In the report's Deposits category
B. In the Total Sales for Department 4
C. In the Total Sales for the department shown for item 1234
D. In the Total Sales for the designated department for deposits
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-019
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

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NO.2 On an AIX 5.3 system where there is no supported Web browser installed, what are the two correct
commands to run the installer in order to complete a custom IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition
installation in a supported mode? (Choose two.)
A. <path to installation files>/install.sh
B. <path to installation files>/launchpad.sh
C. <path to installation files>/launchpad.exe
D. <path to installation files>/install.sh i console
E. <path to installation files>/install.sh f <path to silent install file>
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of
which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.4 In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network
Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which browser version is supported in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for a successful installer
launchpad?
A. Safari 3.0
B. Firefox 2.0
C. Internet Explorer 5
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: B

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NO.6 When deploying IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition, what is a valid consideration when
determining if the installation method should be launchpad?
A. whether the deployment requires a custom or default installation
B. the location of the Netcool Common Information Model database
C. whether $NCHOME has been defined as an environmental variable
D. whether the server meets the prerequisites for a launchpad installation
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where is the Netcool Common Information Model (NCIM) database created with the script,
'create_db2_database.sh NCIM ncim'?
A. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 and the user ncim
B. the NCIM database on the local DB2 and the user db2inst1
C. the NCIM database on the local DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
D. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which product is affected by installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on UNIX as a root user
on the same server?
A. CCMDB
B. OMNIbus
C. Tivoli Integrated Portal
D. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the primary issue with installing and running IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition as a root
user on a single AIX system?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. There are no issues related to installing as root on AIX.
C. Some Tivoli components cannot be installed as root user on AIX.
D. There are X-windows libraries that cannot be run as a root user without creating a security problem.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a
custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

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NO.11 Which three databases are supported for storing the topology database within IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 8.2
B. Oracle 10g
C. MySQL 4.0
D. MySQL 5.0
E. MSSQL 2000
F. PostgreSQL 8.3
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a
new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so
that data in reports can be viewed?
A. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on
the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose
two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 Which permission is required before the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installation runs in a
non-global zone on a Solaris environment?
A. PRIV_PROC_EXEC
B. PRIV_PROC_FORK
C. PRIV_SYS_NETCONFIG
D. PRIV_NET_RAWACCESS
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which post installation task needs to be performed to allow a non-root user to start IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) when it has been installed as root on a UNIX system?
A. Tivoli Network Manager cannot be installed as the root user.
B. Re-install as a non-root user and run the processes as non-root.
C. Run the appropriate script to set permissions for the non-root user.
D. No tasks need to be performed as the system always runs as non-root.
Answer: C

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NO.19 When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

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NO.20 Before installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on 64-bit Windows 2008 or 2003 Server,
which version of Windows Installer is required for a successful installation?
A. Version 4.0
B. Version 4.1
C. Version 4.4
D. Version 4.5
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

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NO.22 A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread
across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100
interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)
based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

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NO.24 Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

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NO.25 When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager)
deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli
Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose
three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

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NO.27 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration
requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using
the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB

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NO.29 Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

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