2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: 6201-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

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NO.7 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3000-3
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Aplication can be used in Conjunction with one-X Portal to provide full softphone and call handing
capability for us
A. Office Voice Portal
B. Office Video Softphone
C. Office Phone Manager Pro
D. Office Softconsole
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two are power option for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class B 24 Volt power supply
B. Class A 24 Volt power supply
C. Power-over-Ethemet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
D. 1151D1 Indiviual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 What should the telephone number field N in an ARS short code look like if you want to send out caller
ID for the number 3033211234 on an ISDN/PRI line?
A. NCLI3033211234
B. Nss3033211234
C. Ns3033211234
D. NCID3033211234
Answer: C

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NO.4 An IP Office with Embedded Voicemail (EVM) has the time set using the system telephone. Each time
the IP Office reboots the time changes to the wrong time. Which Windows command can be used to
determine if there is a time server on the network causing the change.?
A. time
B. time server
C. net time
D. get time
Answer: C

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NO.5 Secure Digital (SD) card commands can be invoked from which two sources? (Choose two.)
A. one-X Portal
B. IP Office Manager
C. Avaya telephones
D. VoiceMail Pro Clint
E. one-X Portal for IP Office
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 Which item must be completed for an IP Office user to be counted in CCR as an agent?
A. User must be defined as an agent in one-X Portal.
B. force Account Code must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
C. CCR Agent Must be checked on the user s Supervisor tab.
D. User must be a member of a hunt group.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has a help desk call center with 50 agents. Agent time on call are billable to the clients
calling in. which combination of features best meets their needs?
A. VoiceMail Pro, Account codes with CLI, one-X Portal Call Accounting
B. ACD via VM Pro Commpaign Manager and a compaign database
C. ACD to distributed Hunt Groups and one-X Portal Call Accounting
D. ICR with account codes and CDR-enabled for billing.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is installing ContactStore 7.8 on a separate Windows server from the VoiceMail Pro Server.
What must be set in the servers so that the recordings move from the voicemail server to the
ContactStore server?
A. The Workgroup name must be in each server.
B. VoiceMail Pro must be part of the domain.
C. IP Office must be in a SCN.
D. The registry key is a string containing the name of the share.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need telephones, voicemail, and meet-me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will use the main office
PRI for inbound and outbound calls. The main site has 40 users and one fax machine. The remote site
has 15 users and one fax machine. Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site
to support all digital telephones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Statin 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module.
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32 Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3103
Exam Name: Avaya (Radvision Scopia Solution for Video Communications Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RDCR08301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level Two)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You use two different ODBC DSNs that assign different data types (numeric in one data source and
string in the second data source). Which three solutions can you use to link the different data types?
(Choose three.)
A.Use an OLAP cube.
B.Use a command object.
C.Use a linked subreport.
D.Use a stored procedure.
Answer:B C D

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NO.2 You want to ensure that your Accounts Receivable listing report displays only those customers with
invoices. Which join type must you specify when you link the Customer and Invoice tables using the
Customer ID field?
A.Enforced Both Join
B.Equal Join
C.Inner Join
D.Full Inner Join
Answer:C

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NO.3 You want to design a weekly sales report that contains a list of all products sold during the week in the
Report Header. Which type of array would you use to handle the data?
A.Dynamic
B.Standard
C.Adaptive
D.Passive
Answer:A

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NO.4 You run a report and the report returns an error that fields are missing. Which feature can you use to
determine if the database structure has changed?
A.Verify Database
B.Record Selection Formula
C.Check Dependencies
D.Show SQL Query
Answer:A

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NO.5 You add a custom function from the repository to a new Crystal report and want to categorize the
function. What must you do to enable the Category box?
A.Edit the custom function.
B.Disconnect the function from the repository.
C.Re-add the function to the repository.
D.Save the custom function to the report.
Answer:B

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NO.6 You design a Crystal report for the Sales department. It lists customer orders received year-to-date
and is grouped and subtotaled monthly by order date. It contains the selection formula: Sum
({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "monthly") > $200000. What is the highest stage of
processing that this report requires?
A.Pass 2
B.Pre-pass 3
C.Pass 1
D.Pre-pass 2
E.Pass 3
Answer:A

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NO.7 How can you reduce processing time for a Crystal report?
A.Sort records on the client
B.Perform query asynchronously
C.Perform grouping on the server
D.Verify data on first refresh
Answer:C

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NO.8 In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A.Pre-pass 2
B.Pass 1
C.Pass 3
D.Pass 2
E.Pre-pass 3
Answer:D

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NO.9 What is an acceptable file type for the imported XML transform?
A.XML
B.XSL
C.VTD
D.STX
Answer:B

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NO.10 The sales manager would like a sales report of last year's sales summarized first by country and then by
last year's sales summarized by sales person. Which method should you use to create the report?
A.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by sales person.
B.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in Group Header grouped by country.
C.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by country.
D.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Header grouped by sales person.
Answer:A

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NO.11 You must create a new Crystal report that displays the top 25% of customer sales leaders. Which
method will sort the report alphabetically by customer, not by the sales summary?
A.Use a standard Top N report.
B.Use subreports with shared variables to calculate the percentage summaries then sort the results.
C.Use multiple arrays in a single report to summarize and sort the data.
D.Use a dynamic array with subreports to create the Top N summaries then sort the data correctly.
Answer:D

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NO.12 You need to hyperlink to a customer's company name. Which syntax should you use to create the
hyperlink?
A.//"http://"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
B."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
C.//"http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
D."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+"com"
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which is the earliest evaluation time function you can use in a formula which does not use any
database fields or summaries?
A.WhilePrintingRecords
B.BeforeReadingRecords
C.EvaluateAfter
D.WhileReadingRecords
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which action should you perform to update a report to reflect a change to the database structure?
A.From the Database Menu, select Set Datasource Location.
B.From the Database Menu, select Verify Database.
C.From the Report Menu, select Refresh Report Data.
D.From the Report Menu, select Check Dependencies.
Answer:B

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NO.15 You create a Crystal report that shows customer names and locations. You use a linked subreport to
display details of the orders placed so far this year by each customer. Each customer's total purchases for
last year are calculated and stored in the main report and retrieved by the subreport. The subreport must
calculate the percentage increase or decrease in orders received this year as compared to each
customer's purchases made last year. Which formula should you use to accomplish this?
A.Shared currencyVar cLYS; (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
B.Shared currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
C.Global currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
D.currencyVar cLYS; (cLYS - Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}))/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
Answer:A

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NO.16 What must you do when unmapped report fields appear in the Map Fields dialog box?
A.Map the fields required for the report.
B.Map all required fields to subreport links.
C.Run the Dependency Checker.
D.Map fields to global variables.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which two statements are true when you create a shared variable in a main report and pass the
variable to an On-Demand subreport? (Choose two.)
A.The main report passes the variable as a local variable.
B.The shared variable is not available for use in the subreport.
C.The shared variable is available for use in the subreport.
D.The main report must calculate the shared variable before it is available in the subreport.
E.The shared variable is calculated in the subreport.
Answer:C D

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NO.18 The world sales report is being sent to all regional managers. Three of the managers cover multiple
regions. You need to configure report bursting so that these managers see all of their regions. Which of
the following is true?
A.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by recipient ID.
B.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by region ID.
C.It is not possible to include more than one region per manager in the report.
D.No action is required as the Dynamic Recipient Data Provider will automatically sort as necessary.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which three conditions might cause an error when you save a custom function? (Choose three.)
A.You used a local variable.
B.You used a summary field.
C.You used a User Function Library (UFL).
D.You used a Print State function.
Answer:B C D

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NO.20 Which two methods can you use to save an unlinked subreport as a stand alone report? (Choose two.)
A.In the Preview pane, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
B.In the Design tab, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
C.In the Subreport Preview tab, from the File menu, select Save Report As
D.In the main report, from the File menu, select Save Report As
Answer:A B

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NO.21 Scheduling a report and sending sub-sets of data to different users dependent on the security is called:
A.Report bursting
B.Report exporting
C.Report publishing
D.Report scheduling
Answer:A

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NO.22 You want to calculate summaries on a different dataset than the main report. The summaries must be
calculated before the main report data is returned. These summaries must display once in the main report.
Which task should you perform to create the report?
A.Insert an unlinked subreport in the report header.
B.Insert an unlinked subreport in the group header.
C.Insert a linked subreport in the group header.
D.Insert a linked subreport in the report footer.
Answer:A

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NO.23 Which three statements describe characteristics of a subreport? (Choose three.)
A.Can be inserted in any section of a primary report
B.Can contain subreports
C.Can have its own record selection
D.Does not contain a Page Header or Page Footer section
Answer:A C D

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NO.24 How can you verify that the data displayed on a report from a database is correct by using the Show
SQL Query option?
A.Copy and run the query into the native database client utility.
B.Copy the query into the Crystal SQL command.
C.Copy and run the query into the Database Expert.
D.Copy the query into SQL+.
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which two evaluation time functions can you use in a formula which contains a manual running total?
(Choose two.)
A.BeforeReadingRecords
B.EvaluateAfter
C.WhileReadingRecords
D.WhilePrintingRecords
Answer:B D

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NO.26 Your test report contains the following record selection formula: {Customer.Region} = "CA" OR
DateTimeToDate ({Orders.Order Date}) > Date (2004,01,01) What is displayed when you select "Show
SQL Query? from the Database menu?
A.An SQL statement or WHERE clause
B.No SQL statement or WHERE clause
C.A server error message
D.A record selection error message
Answer:B

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NO.27 You create the following formula in a new Crystal report: Local NumberVar Array b; Redim b[10]; Local
NumberVar i; For i := 1 To 10 Do ( b[i] := 7 * i ); What is the correct value of b[2]?
A.14
B.140
C.70
D.7
Answer:A

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NO.28 Which menu will allow you to import a new XML transform?
A.Report Export Options
B.Manage XML Exporting Formats
C.Manage XML Importing Formats
D.Report Import Options
Answer:B

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NO.29 Sales Managers use a weekly sales report that includes the following columns: Sales Person, Weekly
Sales and Quota. The Sales Managers would like the ability to retrieve additional non-sales related
information on their personnel by clicking on a hyperlink. Which type of report should you create?
A.Unlinked subreport based on manager ID
B.Unlinked subreport based on employee ID
C.Linked On-Demand subreport based on employee ID
D.On-Demand subreport based on manager ID
Answer:C

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NO.30 You create a Crystal report containing basic employee contact information including an employee
photo in a primary report. Occasionally your manager must view information on an employee's
educational background, employment history or training. You decide to use On-Demand subreports to
supply the additional data. Which action retrieves the data from the database?
A.Saving the report with data
B.Selecting the subreport design tab
C.Clicking the subreport hyperlink
D.Opening the main report the first time
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which two methods can you use to apply report filters to a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose two.)
A. Block
B. Global
C. Custom
D. Dynamic
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which two settings can you configure for the Sample option in the Properties tab of the Web
Intelligence Query panel? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable the "Fixed" option.
B. You can set the "Max retrieval time".
C. You can set the "Max rows retrieved".
D. You can specify a "Sample Result" set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which two Web Intelligence Rich Client authentication methods enable you to export Web
Intelligence documents (WID) to the Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
A. LTM
B. LDAP
C. Offline
D. Enterprise
E. Standalone
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web
Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have created a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID) within InfoView
that has a single table block on a single report page. Where will a new object be displayed when you
add it to the query?
A. In a block
B. In a new report
C. In Query Panel
D. In Report Manager
E. In a new report page
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page
Orientation"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three rules apply when you manually synchronize queries? (Choose three.)
A. Dimension value formats must be the same.
B. Dimensions with different names can be merged.
C. Dimensions with different data types can be merged.
D. Dimensions from multiple data sources can be merged.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the
colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Answer: D

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NO.10 Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.2 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.3 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.4 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.9 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.13 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.14 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.17 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.18 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.19 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.20 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.1 RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user's password is not
changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security
Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
Answer: C

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NO.3 As part of the Primary server installation, the installer automatically backs up certain files
in the RSA Authentication Manager/backup/ directory. These files
A. include the system private key file.
B. hold the contents of the embedded database.
C. are used to install Replica servers and Server Nodes.
D. are deleted after the Primary services successfully start.
Answer: A

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NO.4 If manual load balancing has just been set up for an Authentication Agent and it appears
that the Agent is not contacting the desired servers, it might be helpful to verify the
contents of the
A. sdopts.rec file.
B. sdconf.rec file.
C. sdstatus.12 file.
D. sdagent.rec file.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When planning an RSA SecurID system deployment, the Agents that will be required are
dependent on
A. the type of authenticator assigned to users in the system.
B. the variety and type of entry points to a given network or protected resource.
C. the total number of users that exist in all Authentication Manager Security Domains.
D. the communication (port) configurations of any firewalls separating Agent devices and
authentication servers.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true about the RSA RADIUS Server in an RSA
Authentication Manager version 7.1 environment?
A. A single RADIUS server can be configured to support multiple realms across a single
Authentication Manager deployment.
B. Once the RADIUS server is installed in an Authentication Manager environment, all
users default to using the RADIUS protocol for authentication.
C. If RADIUS is integrated with an Authentication Manager deployment, all users who
authenticate via RADIUS must be issued an RSA SecurID token.
D. If a RADIUS server is not installed at the same time as a Primary or Replica server, it
can NOT be added later without uninstalling and re-installing the Primary or Replica
software.
Answer: D

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NO.7 To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA
Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
"cn=securid" to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user's account must specify 'sdshell' to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
"securid_pam" as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are
contained in the pam.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 If the RSA RADIUS server is NOT installed at the time of the RSA Authentication
Manager software installation and the RADIUS function is needed at a later date,
(Choose two)
A. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server through the Operations Console.
B. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server using the add_rad_svr command
line utility.
C. it can be installed on a separate host and connected to the existing Authentication
Manager server.
D. Authentication Agents can be configured to proxy RADIUS transactions without the
need for a RADIUS server
E. it cannot be added to the Authentication Manager server without uninstalling then reinstalling
the server software.
Answer: C E

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NO.10 If an organization's general security policy specifies that certain RSA SecurID tokens will
be used without a PIN (tokencode only), this can be accomplished by editing the
parameters
A. in the records for individual tokens.
B. in the Realm Authentication Policy.
C. in the Security Domain Token Policy.
D. in the Security Domain Password Policy.
Answer: A

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NO.1 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.4 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.5 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network.
According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.6 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.7 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.8 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.9 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.12 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.15 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.16 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.18 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

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NO.19 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.21 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.22 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
<Missing>
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.23 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.24 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.25 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.26 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.27 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
<Missing>
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.28 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.29 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.30 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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