2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: EX0-118
Exam Name: EXIN (Green IT Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling?
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value
of green IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business
strategy to include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide
a green discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key
staff. b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an
organisation? Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green
IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ECP-102
Exam Name: Ericsson (Ericsson Certified Technology – IP)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Why must the distance between two IP networks be less than 16 routers when using RIP as a
routing protocol?
A. RIP is a classful routing protocol.
B. RIP converges too slowly.
C. RIP uses a metric of 16 as infinite.
D. RIP uses 16 seconds as a hold timer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ? (Choose
two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about MPLS encapsulation in relation to other protocols?
(Choose two.)
A. MPLS encapsulates IP packets.
B. UDP encapsulates MPLS packets.
C. TCP encapsulates MPLS packets.
D. Ethernet encapsulates MPLS packets.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B.
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B.
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks? (Choose three.)
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two advantages of using NAT in a network? (Choose two.)
A. to provide encryption for all IP traffic
B. to efficiently compress the IP packet
C. to hide private IP addresses from the Internet
D. to reduce the use of public IP addresses in a network
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: E20-616
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.2 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.4 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.5 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.6 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.13 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.14 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.16 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.18 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.19 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.1 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.2 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.4 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.5 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.7 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

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NO.8 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.10 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.11 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.12 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

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NO.13 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

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NO.16 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.17 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.18 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

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NO.19 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

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NO.20 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: E20-335
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

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NO.2 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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NO.4 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.5 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.6 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

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NO.8 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.9 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.10 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.13 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.14 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the blade processor in a Brocade splitter?
A. A separate command shell which loads and operates the splitter
B. A special slot in a Brocade director with intelligent switch capabilities
C. A daughterboard in the switch to allow RecoverPoint integration
D. A dedicated memory space in the RPA to integrate with a Brocade switch
Answer: A

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NO.2 When installing a Microsoft Windows kdriver splitter, you receive the dialog box shown in the exhibit
and the installation stops.
What must you do to recover the installation?
A. Click Next, correct the SAN issue, and run SAN Diagnostics again
B. Click Next and Accept the SAN issue warning to continue the installation
C. Click Next to resume the installation with flags
D. Click Back to reconfigure the kdriver parameters
Answer: A

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NO.3 In a cascaded RecoverPoint configuration, a customer experiences a site failure at the secondary site.
What impact does this have on replication?
A.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails
B.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication continues
C.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
D.Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have installed the Solaris kdriver on a host. When validating the installation, you find that the
splitter is not seen by the RecoverPoint Management Application. Other splitters appear correctly in the
GUI.
Which step should you take on the host to discover the splitter by the GUI?
A. Run the /etc/init.d/kdrv start command
B. Run the rc.kdrv configure command and restart the kdriver
C. Run the rc.kdrv start command and reboot the host
D. Run the devfsadm command
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have a customer with an EMC VNX array at each site that uses both block and file storage. They
would like to use the VNX splitter to replicate all their iSCSI data LUNs.
How would you configure RecoverPoint?
A. Use the Consistency Group Wizard to create a CG
B. Use Installation Manager and "Expose" all iSCSI LUNs
C. Check the "Enable iSCSI Replication" option in the CG profile
D. Replication of iSCSI LUNs are not supported at this time
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have finished deploying SANTap in a RecoverPoint CRR environment. At Site 2 everything looks
fine. However, at Site 1 you see the following message on the RecoverPoint Management Application:
WARNING: RPA cannot access discovery AVT: 7001248288220000 ; Site1 ; RPA1 in Site1 ; Cisco -
CVT22-2109000dec3c3182
You have checked that back-end and front-end VSANs are properly configured with the correct members
in each. Which action can you take to perform a full discovery of ITLs and recreation of AVTs to fix this
issue?
A. SSH as 'admin' and run the refresh_santap_view command
B. Refresh the splitters on the RecoverPoint Management Application
C. Rescan the SAN on the RecoverPoint Management Application
D. SSH as 'admin' and run the get_santap_view command
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which generation of RecoverPoint Appliance hardware must be used to ensure you can use a CRR
over FC configuration?
A. Gen2 and 3 only
B. Gen2 and 4 only
C. Gen2, 3, and 4
D. Gen3 and 4 only
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are implementing a RecoverPoint CRR solution. The RPAs that were delivered do not have the
correct version of RecoverPoint.
What is the EMC-preferred way to load the correct software version to the RPAs?
A. Before launching Deployment Manager
B. During the Deployment Manager installation process
C. After completing the installation but before the license is installed
D. After the installation is complete
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which device allows the installation of a Brocade splitter into a DCX director?
A. PB-48k-18i
B. PB-48k-AP
C. PB-DCX-32P-E
D. PB-DCX-48P-8G
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has a RecoverPoint environment defined with two RPAs at each site. They created two
consistency groups (CGs), each one in a different RPA. Their business requires that both consistency
groups act as a single unit as they are dependent on one another.
How can they achieve this requirement?
A. Create one Group Set for both CGs
B. Enable the RecoverPoint Snapshot Consolidation feature
C. Select the same primary RPA for both CGs
D. Configure distributed consistency groups
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have just enabled the zones and re-enabled the configuration on a AP-7600B switch. Where would
you run the thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv status command to verify the status of the kdriver on the
switch?
A. As root in the blade processor
B. As admin in the blade processor
C. As root in the control processor
D. As admin in the control processor
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are installing the RecoverPoint splitter agent on a B-Series switch. After downloading the agent
binary file to the blade processor, which step must be completed prior to successfully running the
command?
A. chmod +x agent_binary_file
B. chmod +rw agent_binary_file
C. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/zoning_script.sh
D. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv start
Answer: A

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NO.13 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting a RecoverPoint issue where consistency groups, using a kdriver splitter, have
stopped working. While analyzing the problem, you ran detect Fibre Channel targets from the SAN
Diagnostics menu. What does this output tell you that relates to the problem in the environment?
A. RPA is not zoned to any hosts
B. All RPA HBA ports are being used as targets
C. Even and odd ports should not see the same targets
D. Ports 0 and 3 should not be connected to the same fabric
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are finalizing a RecoverPoint setup that makes use of the Symmetrix VMAXe splitter. You are about
to create the masking view for the RecoverPoint cluster initiator group.
Which setting must be enabled to allow the RPAs to write to the replica volumes when image access is
disabled?
A. Write Protect Bypass
B. Always Push Old
C. Backlog Mirroring
D. Device Tagging
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are selecting the RecoverPoint repository volume using Deployment Manager at a customer's site.
If the customer's environment makes use of an EMC VNX array, what needs to be considered?
A. Selected LUN will be formatted
B. Use of a thin provisioned LUN is supported
C. LUN is accessible by only one RPA
D. Thin LUNs have to be pre-allocated
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer wants to add a new RecoverPoint UserID. Which role must their UserID belong to in order to
manage user settings?
A. Security
B. Admin
C. Boxmgmt
D. Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer is planning to deploy a 2-node RecoverPoint cluster at each data center. They will make use
of dual stack for its LAN network connection.
How many IP addresses should the customer plan for per site, including management IP addresses.?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.18 You want to upgrade a RecoverPoint environment using Deployment Manager (DM). As a prerequisite
to continuing with the upgrade, which TCP port needs to be open between the management station where
the DM is installed and the RPA management IP addresses?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 161
Answer: A

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NO.19 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting High Load activities on two consistency groups (CGs). As part of your tasks, you
have run the data collect and are reviewing the system log files for the CGs.
What is a possible root cause for this High Load period?
A. The preferred RPA has lost communications with the remote RPA and caused a failover of the CG
within the cluster.
B. The local site has lost connectivity to the remote site and caused the CG to go into Marking mode.
C. There is no journal assigned to the CG in the local site, causing latency build up during data transfer.
D. The copies are cross-connected between the sites causing additional I/O to flood the connectivity
between the sites.
Answer: A

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NO.20 In a Brocade splitter implementation using frame redirect mode, how many DPCs are available?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-805
Exam Name: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How can you leverage the Replication Manager (RM) infrastructure to securely provide copies of
production SQL data to the software development team?
A. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to schedule their own replications.
B. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to schedule their own
replications.
C. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to create their own replication jobs.
D. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to create their own
replication jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which utility should you recommend to the customer to assist in migrating to the proposed
infrastructure?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. SAN Copy
D. VMware vMotion
Answer: A

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NO.6 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

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Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.7 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.8 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

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NO.9 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

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NO.11 Performance is a major factor in the deployment for the customer. The customer also mentions the
need for a backup solution that minimizes the impact to production. Furthermore, the customer wants
frequent datastore checks to validate integrity.
Which solution supports the customer's goals?
A. Use Replication Manager VSS integration and a VNX clone to create a copy of the production
LUN.
Perform regular database checks against the copy.
B. Use Replication Manager and VNX Snap to create a space-efficient copy.
Perform regular database checks using eseutil.
C. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a VNX clone.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
D. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a space-efficient copy with VNX Snap.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Vblock offering is most appropriate in this scenario?
A. Vblock 0
B. Vblock 1
C. Vblock 1U
D. Vblock 2
Answer: C

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NO.13 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

NO.14 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

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NO.15 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

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NO.16 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

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NO.17 As part of a legal discovery request, the customer must make available a functioning copy of the SQL
environment as it existed at the time of the TLog3 backups. What would be the most efficient way to
restore the SQL server to that point to make the data available?
A. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just before TLog3 backups were completed 2 -
Roll SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
B. 1 - Restore the Monday SQL Server backup 2 - Apply the Tuesday SQL differential backup 3 - Roll SQL
forward by applying TLog3 backups
C. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog3 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL backward by subtracting TLog4 backups
D. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog2 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

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Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.19 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

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Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.20 Which disaster recovery solution would best fit the customer s needs for the VMFS datastores?
A. RecoverPoint/SE and VMware Site Recovery Manager
B. Replicator with VMware Site Recovery Manager
C. SRDF with VMware Site Recovery Manager
D. MirrorView/A with VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: A

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