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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the (edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 10.10.10.1 as its primary next-hop and 10.10.10.5
as its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this scenario?
A.set static route 8/8 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 pref 10
B.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 secondary-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
C.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
D.set static route 8/8 next-hop [10.10.10.1 10.10.10.5] pref 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 Router A is an OSPF router connected to both Area 0 and Area 1 Area 1 has been configured as a stub
area Which two LSA types does Router A suppress from Area 1 ?
A.Router LSA
B.External LSA
C.Summary LSA
D.ASBR Summary LSA
Answer: B D

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NO.3 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the [edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 43 18 7 1 as its primary next-hop and 76 1310 2 as
its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this setup?
A.set static route 0/0 76.13.10.2 qualified-next-hop 43.18.7.1 pref 10
B.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 secondary-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
C.set static route 0/0 next-hop [76.13.10.2 10.10.10.5] pref 10
D.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 qualified-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two values displayed in the output from the show spanning-tree MSTP configuration command
must match on all switches participating in the same MSTP region? (Choose two)
A.root bridge identifier
B.authentication checksum
C.context identifier
D.configuration digest
Answer: CD

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NO.5 You must configure an OSPF area that does not accept type 3 link-state advertisements (LSAs) from
area 0 (other than the default route) You have configured your area to be stub, but you still see type 3
LSAs.
What will account for this behavior?
A.You should have configured your area as totally stubby
B.You should have used a not-so-stubby-area
C.You are experiencing a routing loop
D.You have exported routes into OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have been asked to configure an IPv6 address for a group of interfaces that could belong on
different routers. If a packet is sent to that address, it should be received by all routers in the group.
Which address type would be suited for these requirements?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which IS-IS packet is used to determine the level of an IS-IS neighbor?
A.IIH
B.LSP
C.PSNP
D.CSNP
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which BGP state denotes a fully operational session?
A.Established
B.Active
C.Operational
D.Connect
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that load balancing is working as expected?
A.show route all
B.show route extensive
C.show route balancing
D.show route forwarding-table
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have configured an IP-IP tunnel between Router A and Router B
Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that the tunnel interface is up and operational?
A.show chassis tunnel status
B.show tunnel interface
C.show interfaces terse
D.show interfaces tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two statements describe differences between IPv4 and IPv6.? (Choose two)
A.IPsec is built into IPv6
B.IPv6 uses a 32-bit (4-byte) address and can support up to 4,294,967,296 addresses
C.IPv4 supports extension headers whereas IPv6 options are integrated into the base
D.IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which role does the router ID (RID) have in the BGP route selection process?
A.The router ID is evaluated immediately after MED to determine route preference
B.The router ID is evaluated last in the route selection process
C.The router ID is evaluated after the cluster length and a lower router ID is chosen
D.The router ID is evaluated after analyzing the IGP metric cost
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button
Based on the illustration of the VPLS topology shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A.PE-C must have a spanning-tree protocol enabled
B.CE-C must have BGP enabled
C.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is forwarded on to PE-B
D.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is not forwarded on to PE-B
Answer: D

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NO.14 You have recently implemented a graceful Routing-Engine switchover (GRES) and want to further
reduce down time if a Routing Engine (RE) failure occurs.
Which two features can be configured on this device to reduce its downtime in this situation? (Choose
two)
A.VRRP
B.GR
C.BFD
D.NSR
Answer: B D

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NO.15 What are two valid actions that can be applied to a frame by a Layer 2 firewall filter?
(Choose two)
A.Log
B.loss-priority
C.sample
D.count
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button
You work for the regional Internet service provider shown in the exhibit You have a partial BGP table and
are receiving a 10 100/16 route from your upstream ISP You have been asked to configure a default route
that can be sent to your downstream customer This route should forward customer traffic toward your
upstream Tier 11SP as long as the 10.100/16 route is present.
What would accomplish this goal?
A.Create and announce an aggregate default route
B.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of discard
C.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of reject
D.Create and announce a generated default route
E.Create an advertise-map with exist-map
Answer: E

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button
In the exhibit, OSPF routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 come up, in order, at 1-minute intervals
Which router will be the designated router?.
A.R1
B.R2
C.R3
D.R4
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the function of the hop limit field in the IPv6 header?
A.It limits the diameter of the network to 20 hops
B.It sets the number of hops in the network to be equal to the MPLS header time-to-live (TTL)
C.It replaces the time-to-live (TTL) field in IPv4
D.It represents future extensibility to the protocol
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button
Referring to the network illustrated in the exhibit, how does router A reach destinations in area 49.2222?
A.Router A will use the routes from area 49.2222; it learns from router B
B.Router A will see the attached bit from router B and create a default route
C.Router A must have a default route manually configured
D.Router A will receive a default route in the IS-IS update from router B
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have been asked to define a default gateway for traffic leaving a router. This route should use
interface so-0/0/0 as its next-hop.Which type of route would be suited for this scenario?
A.a static route
B.a generated route
C.a martian route
D.an aggregate route
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-533
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
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B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
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B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.1 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.10 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.12 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.13 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.14 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.17 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EUCOC
Exam Name: ISEB (Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.5 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-120
Exam Name: IBM (Academic Associate: IBM i 7 Administration)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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NO.2 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects, other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.4 User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry.?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
thus predicting problems and triggering an event to take action before the problem occurs.
B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, predict database performance problems.
C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
when used in conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, display database performance problems.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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