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Exam Code: C-HANATEC-1
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which user must have SELECT privilege with the grant option on the data schema?
A. <SID>ADM
B. SYSTEM
C. _SYS_BIC
D. _SYS_REPO
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the connection type for communication between the SAP LT Replication Server and the non-SAP source system?
A. TRFC
B. Web service
C. QRFC
D. Database
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which actions to you need to perform to configure SAP HANA single sign-on?
A. Generate and import X.509 certificate
B. Generate and import PSE key
C. Generate and import Kerberos keytab
D. Generate and import SSH rsa key
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following must be running to view SAP HANA Diagnosis Files if the SAP HANA database is offline?
A. sapstartsrv
B. SMD Agent
C. r3trans
D. disp+work
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the save point process in SAP HANA?
A. Save logs to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
B. Free up memory by saving less frequently used data to persistent storage.
C. Save changed data and logs to persistent storage on a regular basis.
D. Save changed data to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are recovery types in SAP HANA database? (Choose two)
A. Recovery with incremental backup
B. Recovery until cancel
C. Full recovery
D. Point in time recovery
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C_TAW12_731
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate-ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 INITIALIZATION

NO.2 START-OF-SELECTION
B. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
4. START-OF-SELECTION
C. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
4. START-OF-SELECTION
D. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. START-OF-SELECTION
4. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
Answer: C

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2. Which of the following tasks does the BADI implementing class perform?
A. Filtering
B. Sequencing
C. Inserting
D. Deleting
Answer: A

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3. Which boundary conditions lead to improved access time to an internal table? (Choose three)
A. Left justified part of key for sorted tables
B. Fully qualified key for sorted tables
C. Index access for hashed tables
D. Left justified part of key for hashed tables
E. Index access for standard tables
Answer: A,B,E

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4. Which of the following predefined ABAP types is incomplete?
A. F
B. P
C. XSTRING
D. STRING
Answer: B

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5. When should you use a hashed internal table? (Choose two)
A. When accessing mainly single records
B. When accessing by secondary key
C. When accessing using the left-justified part of the key
D. When accessing always by primary key
E. When accessing by index
Answer: A,D

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6. In which modularization units can you use parameters? (Choose three)
A. Event blocks such as START-OF-SELECTION
B. Function modules
C. Subroutines
D. Dialog modules such as PBO modules
E. Methods
Answer: B,C,E

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7. You have implemented a class CL_CUSTOMER in which you defined a private attribute. From
where can you access this attribute directly? (Choose two)
A. From all methods of all subclasses of CL_CUSTOMER
B. From all methods of the class CL_CUSTOMER
C. From all methods of a class to which CL_CUSTOMER grants friendship
D. From any program using the class CL_CUSTOMER
Answer: B,C

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8. You perform an update task using update function modules and detect an error in the
program that
calls the update function modules. Which statement can be used to discard all update requests for
the current SAP LUW? (Choose two)
A. EXIT.
B. ROLLBACK WORK.
C. MESSAGE axxx(nnn).
D. MESSAGE exxx(nnn).
E. DELETE UPDATE.
Answer: B,C

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9. What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. The program is terminated.
B. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
C. A type E message is displayed.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: B

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10. What is the purpose of implicit enhancement points?
A. To add fields to an SAP database table
B. To add code to a standard SAP program
C. To change code in a standard SAP program
D. To create a secondary index for an SAP database table
Answer: B

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NO.3 AT SELECTION-SCREEN

NO.4 An executable ABAP program contains a standard selection screen and uses the event blocks
AT
SELECTION-SCREEN, AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT, INITIALIZATION, START-OFSELECTION.
In which sequence will ABAP runtime call these event blocks?
A. 1. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT

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Exam Code: C_HANASUP_1
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which parameters can you configure for an expensive statement trace? (Choose two)
A. Passport trace level
B. Threshold duration
C. Trace status
D. Trace file
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 In the SAP HANA studio Administration Editor, for the following purposes can you use the
Sessions subtab of the Performance tab? (Choose two)
A. To view memory consumption by session
B. To investigate blocking situations
C. To set up session-based alerts
D. To configure the maximum allowed concurrent sessions
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What do you have to consider when you want to unpartition an SAP HANA table? (Choose
three)
Unpartitioning blocks concurrent read access to the table during the process.
A. An exclusive lock on the table is required.
B. Unpartitioning can table a long time to complete.
C. Only read access is allowed during the unpartitioning process.
D. Only tables of more than 2 billion rows can be unpartitioned.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following are held in SAP HANA used memory? (Choose two)
A. Free memory pool
B. Temporary computations
C. Heap memory
D. Column and row tables
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 For which purposes can you use the Table locks system report?
A. To investigate locked table names
B. To unlock tables
C. To investigate table lock transaction owners
D. To kill locking transactions
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can you transport using CTS/CTS+? (Choose two)
A. Analytic privilege
B. Calculation view
C. Index
D. Table
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 In the SAP HANA studio, which of the following SQL thread details can you monitor by using
the Threads subtab of the Performance tab of the Administration editor? (Choose three)
A. The SQL statement
B. The generated data
C. The service name
D. The blocking status
E. The visual execution plan
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 In the SAP HANA studio, in which subtab of the Landscape tab of the Administration editor
can you check the statuses of all hosts in a high-availability scenario?
A. Configuration
B. Services
C. Secondary System Replication
D. Redistribution
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following events can trigger a delta merge? (Choose two)
A. Memory consumption of delta storage drops below a specified limit.
B. The delta log for a columnar table drops below a defined limit.
C. The delta log for a columnar table exceeds a defined limit.
D. Memory consumption of delta storage exceeds a specified limit.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 You granted a user the system privileges INIFILE ADMIN and DATA ADMIN. What does this
allow the user to do?
A. Modify the nameserver_history.trc files.
B. Reset the backup.log file.
C. Modify configuration files.
D. Reset the log.txt file
Answer: C

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NO.11 An SAP HANA developer receives an error when running an SAP HANA Predictive Analysis
Library procedure. In which of the following files can you find more information?
A. Script server log
B. Index server log
C. Name server log
D. Statistics server log
Answer: D

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NO.12 How can you restore a default parameter configuration setting in the SAP HANA studio?
(Choose two)
A. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Configure Table, and the Restore
Default.
B. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Change, and then Restore Default.
C. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Delete.
D. Choose Window-Preference-Administration Console and select Restore Defaults.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which of the following can you determine using the Backup catalog report? (Choose two)
A. The path for the backup files
B. Whether a recovery is possible
C. Which backup files are obsolete
D. When to execute the net backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 How can you set configurations at the system level using the SAP HANA studio?
A. Enter values in the System column in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor.
B. Right-click on a system in the Navigator pane and select Open Security from the context menu.
C. Right-click on a setting in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor, select Change, and
enter values for all hosts.
D. Enter values in the Properties view when you use the Overview tab of the Administration editor.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which part of an expensive statement trace would you investigate to identify possible
performance improvements?
A. Statement string
B. Statement length
C. TOTAL_LOCK_WAIT_TIME
D. ALLOC_MEM_SIZE_COLSTORE
Answer: A

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Code: 100-045
Exam Name: Isilon (Isilon Certified Storage Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are versions of NFS are enabled by default in an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Versions 1 and 2
B. Versions 1, 2, and 3
C. Versions 2 and 3
D. Versions 3 and 4
E. Versions 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.2 For what reasons would you increase the default Ethernet frame MTU on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3.)
A. To match the frame size of the client system.
B. To improve overall performance.
C. To increase the LUN I/O performance.
D. There is no good reason to change the default Ethernet frame size. It is automatically optimized for
performance.
E. To provide easier trace captures.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of nodes supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. 48
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
E. 144
Answer: E

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NO.4 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
Answer: C

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NO.6 What should you name the account that runs the Isilon for vCenter Plug-in? (Choose 1)
A. vapi
B. api
C. vCenter
D. vm
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When setting a new disk pool protection level, what should the administrator do to apply the new
protection level to existing data? (Select the best answer.)
A. The administrator should run the isi protect command to apply the new protection level.
B. The administrator should run the isi migrate command to apply the new protection level.
C. Nothing. The cluster applies the new protection level automatically to existing data.
D. Nothing. You cannot apply new protection level settings until you complete an entire cluster reboot.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are configuring a synchronization between two clusters using SyncIQ. You re root directory is
/ifs/data. You create an include statement for /ifs/data/media and an exclude statement of /ifs/data/public.
What will be synchronized to the other cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Nothing will be synchronized.
B. Everything in the ifs/data folder will be synchronized.
C. Everything in the ifs/data folder except the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
D. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder and the /ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
E. Everything in the /ifs/data/media folder will be synchronized.
F. Everything in the ifs/data/public folder will be synchronized.
Answer: E

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NO.12 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D

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NO.14 The unlicensed version of SmartPools enables you to do what? (Choose 1)
A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How do you enable anti-virus scanning service for an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Click Enable on the Anti-virus Summary page
B. Install an ICAP server
C. Configure all of the settings on the Anti-virus Summary page
D. Install an ICMP server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 132-S-712
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Design Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.2 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.3 Your customer has difficulty sorting through their current system's reports to give supervisors
information that pertains only to their particular group. Which feature should in Avaya Proactive Contact
meets the customer's need?
A.Shared Lists
B.Unit Work List
C.List Distribution
D.Hierarchy Manager
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.6 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.8 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.9 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.10 Your customer runs a collections call center. When an inbound call comes in, your customer wants be
able to keep the customer from being called back on the outbound jobs if payment was received on the
inbound call. Which feature automatically marks records as uncallable on outbound jobs if the agent uses
a code indicating an inbound call resulted in a payment from the customer?
A.Do Not Call
B.Sales Verification
C.Generic Postupdate
D.Realtime Campaign Update
Answer:D

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