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Exam Code: HP2-E51
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 HP estimates that companies allocate approximately how much of their total resources to business
operations, and how much to business innovation?
A. 30% to operations, 70% to innovation
B. 50% to operations, 50% to innovation
C. 70% to operations, 30% to innovation
D. 90% to operations, 10% to innovation
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a drawback of having a high number of legacy applications in rigid siloes on separate
infrastructure islands?
A. It is difficult for IT to perform system maintenance task with business users.
B. It is difficult for IT to provide accurate assessments of the server and storage requirements and
manage software updates
C. It is difficult for IT to maintain service level agreements and keep up with the speed of business.
D. It is difficult for IT to predict resource requirements on a three-year rolling plan.
Answer: A

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NO.3 HP CloudSystem Enterprise lets your customers substantially increase organizational agility, enabling
them to rapidly respond to changing demands. What is one of the key benefits of this?
A. They reduce the amount of network bandwidth needed to deploy new services.
B. They gain the ability to scale and flex capacity in seconds, not hours, days or weeks.
C. They gain the ability to virtualize existing environments and increase operations and administration
efficiency.
D. They are able to increase storage utilization and reduce the overall administration burden.
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to a research study conducted by IDC, it takes IT organizations more than 20 days to deploy
a new application in a traditional environment. How long does deploying a converged infrastructure
solution take?
A. less than 5 days
B. less than 10 days
C. less than 15 days
D. less than 20 days
Answer: B

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NO.5 According to Gartner, what percentage of companies will be pursuing Private Cloud Strategies by 2014?
A. 36%
B. 56%
C. 66%
D. 76%
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have a customer whose company may not be ready for a full HP CloudSystem implementation.
What are the recommended strategies for proposing a solution to this type of customer? (Select two.)
A. Propose a CloudSystem solution that can be fully implemented and budgeted today and obtain Sales
Management approval for a big discount to encourage the customer.
B. Explain that the full CloudSystem solution must be implemented simultaneously to reap the full rewards
and remain cost-effective, and then schedule a follow-up meeting in six months.
C. Propose an HP VirtualSystem that can be fully implemented today, so that the customer can gain
immediate benefits and transition to cloud later.
D. Propose that the customer attends a Cloud Discovery Workshop so that HP Services can develop a
pragmatic path for a Cloud solution for their company.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 According to an IDC research report, what is the biggest concern customers have about moving to a
cloud infrastructure?
A. cloud data security
B. vendor lock-in
C. performance and availability
D. integration
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your customer's IT department has too many applications, too much customization, and too much
complexity. What adverse effect is this likely having on the company?
A. It is difficult for the company to expand operations to other parts of the world.
B. The company must invest too much of their budget in marketing and sales.
C. There are too many constraints which affect hiring and training new employees.
D. The customer's IT Department is constraining their company's business agility.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Companies that are just starting to virtualize their IT environments are likely not ready to launch a
private cloud. What steps should they take first?
A. Standardization and Consolidation
B. Consolidation and Self-Provisioning
C. Standardization and Optimization
D. Optimization and Automation
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the sales formula for Business Value?
A. Benefit minus Fixed Cost = Value
B. Benefit minus Overhead = Value
C. Benefit minus Investment = Value
D. Overhead minus Cost = Value
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Q06
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP BCS Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which types of Integrity servers can support vPars v5? (Select two)
A. bl890c i2
B. Bl860c and bl870c
C. cell-based Integrity Servers
D. Superdome 2
E. rx6600
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 How do Mission-Critical customers benefit the most from an HP Integrity Converged Infrastructure?
A. They are able to fail over systems in a short time period
B. They have availability and flexibility when needed.
C. They have secure and flexible systems.
D. They are able to allocate resources from one server to another.
Answer: A

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NO.3 HP claims that as a result of the developments outlined in HP Project Odyssey, system reliability will
increase 68x. Against what was the comparison.?
A. the HP DL980 server
B. a mainstream competitor's system
C. the previous generation of Integrity server
D. the previous generation of Superdome
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer's IT department is upgrading from a sole "supplier" or builder of services. What is the
next generation IT department expected to deliver?
A. IT will continue to develop new applications in-house to meet business needs.
B. IT will become the builder AND the broker of IT services.
C. IT will be outsourced to public and private cloud providers.
D. IT will determine the business and IT Strategy and take greater control of budgets.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HP Storage platform is recommended for the Medium Matrix Starter Kit with HP BL970 i2
Blades?
A. P4000 Lefthand
B. P6000 EVA
C. P9500 XP
D. 3PAR F Series
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a defining feature of HP iCAP?
A. creates soft partitions in Superdome 2
B. It can cut the cost of common data center tasks by up to 40%.
C. It can minimize capital expenditure on Disaster Recovery systems
D. It eliminates server sprawl
Answer: C

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NO.7 According to estimates from the U. S Bureau of Labor, what percentage of companies that suffer a
significant data loss are out of business within five years?
A. 63%
B. 73%
C. 83%
D. 93%
Answer: D

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NO.8 How many HP Integrity Virtual Machine partitions can be created in each processor core?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 20
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.9 How long does it take to provision a new service in an HP Mission Critical Converged Infrastructure?
A. less than two hours
B. less than one day
C. less than two days
D. less than five days
Answer: A

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NO.10 Up to what percentage can customers expect to reduce total cost of ownership (TCO) by using HP
CloudSystem Matrix for HP-UX?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 46%
D. 56%
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y43
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A company has a service level agreement (SLA) with its service provider. The SLA specifies a 2 Mbps
committed information rate (CIR) and 20 KB committed burst size (CBS). Lately, during peak usage times,
the company has been experiencing brief periods of poor performance on its external connection
(GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1 on an HP 5800 switch).
How can the network administrator configure the Comware switch to address this problem?
A. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a QoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an inbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
B. Enable Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1 and ensure that all inbound traffic is
marked with the correct priority.
C. Configure generic traffic shaping (GTS) on the GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1, setting the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB.
D. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a OoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an outbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company has a network that includes HP 5800 and 12500 switches. Usage demands on the
company's FTP servers have increased, causing performance issues during peak usage times. While
analyzing link utilization, the network administrator noticed that the most heavily utilized links experience
bursts of congestion, causing them to drop traffic. The links then experience brief periods of low utilization
followed by another burst of congestion. This pattern continues periodically throughout the peak utilization
time.
What should the network administrator do to attempt to create a more efficient traffic pattern on these
links?
A. Configure an outbound traffic policing policy on the ports in question, setting the CIR at about sixty
percent of the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent.
B. Apply Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling in preference to
Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on the ports in question.
C. Configure inbound traffic policing policies on ports at the core, setting the CIR at about sixty percent of
the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent. Apply outbound generic traffic shaping (GTS) on
ports facing the core ports, setting the CIR equal to the CIR on the core ports.
D. Apply a WRED table to the ports in question, optionally adjusting the table values to drop lower priority
traffic first.
Answer: D

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NO.3 View the exhibit.
A network administrator wants to configure an HP 5800 switch to place all incoming traffic on the
GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 port in priority queue 3. However, one exception applies. All traffic incoming on that
port that is destined to UDP port 55555 should be forwarded in priority queue 4 and marked with DSCP
32.
Based on the current configurations shown in the exhibit, which further steps must the network
administrator perform? (Select two.)
A. Configure port GigabitEthernet 1>0/1 to trust DSCP
B. Apply QoS policy Policy1 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/l
C. Apply QoS policy Policy2 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
D. Create a OoS Ip-dscp mapthat maps Ip value 4 to DSCP02
E. Undo OoS trust on port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 View the exhibits.
Exhibit 1
The frame has these characteristics:
-VLANID = 3
-802.1p = 3
-DSCP=32
-Source IP address = 10.1.1.5
Click here for Exhibit 2
The frame shown in Exhibit 1 arrives on an HP 5800 switch's GigabitEthernet port 1/0/1. QoS maps are at
their default settings. Based on the configuration shown in Exhibit 2, to which queue is the outbound
packet assigned?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?
A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6 address.?
A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already
using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is
using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to advertise the
addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global
prefixes associated with the link immediately.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A network includes a mix of IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 endpoints and must support the following source
specific multicasting applications:
-Source: 10.1.4.2 and Group: 232.0.5.5
-Source: 10.1.4.12 and Group 232.0.6.6
The network is already implementing PIM-SM and IGMPv3. In order to support these applications, the HP
10500 switches that act as routers for the endpoints in question must support another feature. Which step
must the network administrator perform on each of these switches?
A. Create an SSM policy that includes 232.0.5.5 and 232.0.6.6 within its range
B. Enable IGMPv2 backward compatibility mode
C. Configure two SSM maps, each of which mapsa source to its multicast group
D. Enable PIM SSM on the interfaces that connect to the endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch
fabric meets this need?
A. the 7500's CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500's CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500's crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500's crossbar switch fabric
Answer: B

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NO.9 View the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a network with HP 5400 zl and 8200 zl switches throughout the core and edge. What is
one advantage of implementing routing on edge switches?
A. Typically, it is easier to implement user-based VLAN assignments.
B. The topology has higher redundancy because edge switches can take over routing roles when
necessary.
C. Typically, the network can use fewer total VLANs when edge switches implement routing.
D. Typically, it is easier to ensure that routed links between edge and core switches are fully utilized.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers
money?
A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most
numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power
and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge,
deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and
cooling costs.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B93
Exam Name: HP (Customer Comm Mgt-Design and Production)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which features are included in High-Volume Delivery? (Select three.)
A. dynamic output file naming
B. multiple-up support
C. imposition
D. bundling
E. text box flow
F. unlimited page numbering
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 What is an extension of the Postscript printer language.?
A. PDX
B. PCL
C. AFP
D. VIPP
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which PDF version does PDF/A-1b Output produce?
A. PDF version1.3
B. PDF version 1.4
C. PDF version 1.5
D. PDF version 1.6
Answer: A

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NO.4 What capability is a prerequisite for the LiveWorkflow module?
A. some type of fulfillment
B. LiveDesign
C. some type of repository
D. Live Editor
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which feature does Advanced Campaign Management include?
A. unlimited messages
B. background colors
C. usage charts
D. ability to link campaigns together
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 920-183
Exam Name: Nortel (Callpilot RIS.5.0 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 After a user attempts to launch an Email-By-Phone session by pressing 8-9, the system responds by
stating that the message list is empty and returns the user to CallPilot messages. What is a possible
cause for this scenario?
A. The message list on the email server is empty.
B. The user has an incorrect user ID or password.
C. The Email-By-Phone feature is not enabled for this user.
D. The email address is entered incorrectly in the mailbox properties.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are implementing the Outlook Single Inbox feature at your company. The IT team asks you how
this feature affects the Exchange Server. Which information will you share to answer their question?
A. The original CallPilot message and all copies are transferred to the Exchange Server.
B. Synchronization between the Exchange Server and the CallPilot Server occurs even when CallPilot is
not running.
C. Copies of users' CallPilot messages are saved to the Exchange Server. The original messages reside
on the CallPilot server.
D. Desktop Messaging synchronization does not require that Microsoft Outlook be actively running on the
user's computer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants to implement a User Privacy Option for all My CallPilot users. How can the
administrator let the users self-administer the privacy option?
A. In the Mailbox settings of Security Administration, deselect Name Dialing and Name Addressing.
B. In the Name Dialing settings of the Messaging Management page, deselect Name Dialing and Name
Addressing.
C. In the Privacy and Blocking settings of the User Creation Template, deselect Name Dialable by
External Callers.
D. In the Desktop and Web Messaging Configuration settings of the Mailbox Class Details page, select
Allow User to Hide Entry in Address Book.
Answer: D

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NO.4 After installing CallPilot Desktop Messaging, an end user needs to retrieve the messages from the
CallPilot mailbox. Which protocol enables desktop messaging clients to retrieve messages from the
CallPilot server?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B

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NO.5 The performance and capabilities for Remote Notification are important for both the system
administrator and the user. Which two statements about configuring Remote Notification are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The schedule is defined in the mailbox class.
B. It can be set up with telephone keypad commands.
C. It can be configured for up to three target Directory Numbers (DNs).
D. It allows only a specific number of retries before notification is turned off.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You are installing the Messaging Waiting Indication (MWI) icon for Desktop Messaging and My
CallPilot users. Which statement about the MWI icon feature is true?
A. You can install the MWI software by using only the desktop client installer.
B. You can install the MWI software by using only the standalone desktop player.
C. You can install the MWI software by using the desktop client installer or the standalone desktop player.
D. You cannot download the MWI software from My CallPilot. You must download from Desktop
Messaging.
Answer: C

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NO.7 CallPilot administrators can provide centralized control of desktop options. Which two are configurable
services for Desktop and Web Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. fax printing
B. desktop playback
C. address book location
D. creation of a revert directory number
Answer: BC

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NO.8 CallPilot Desktop Messaging clients at a company are unable to send messages from the desktop
interface. Which messaging protocol must be configured to enable this capability?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 922-100
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.4.0 to Rls.5.0 Delta)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server 1000S to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0.
Which hardware component replaces the Media Gateway 1000S controller card?
A. DSP Daughterboard
B. Media Card 32 Port Security
C. No hardware change required.
D. Media Gateway Controller card
E. Call Processor Pentium Mobile
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. To take advantage of features
supported by the Enterprise Common Manager (ECM) framework, which systems can be deployed as the
ECM? (Choose two.)
A. VxWorks Operating System and ISP 1100
B. Linux Operating System and IBM x306m
C. Linux Operating System and HP DL 320
D. VxWorks Operating System and HP DL 320
E. VxWorks Operating System and IBM x306m
Answer: BC

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NO.3 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 and needs additional temporary IP
User Licenses for controlled load sharing between two systems.
Which statement is true regarding the licenses to be ordered and the use of additional IP User Licenses?
A. No additional licenses need to be ordered. If the customer runs out of IP User Licenses for the 1150E,
they can use the Basic IP User Licenses.
B. Basic IP User Licenses must be ordered. Regular IP Licenses will be used if the temporary license
count is exceeded.
C. Regular IP User Licenses must be ordered. Basic IP User Licenses will be used if the temporary
license count is exceeded.
D. Temporary User Licenses should be ordered. Basic IP or Regular IP User Licenses will be used if the
temporary license count is exceeded.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has upgraded from a Communication Server (CS) 1000S to a CS 1000E Standard
Availability (SA). Due to their projected company and network growth, they are contemplating upgrading
to a CS 1000E High Availability (HA) system. Which component(s) differentiate a HA system from a SA
system?
A. a second CP-PM
B. enabling the HA software package
C. a second CP-PM and a CP-PM Call Server
D. a second CP-PM and enabling the HA software package
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. Which hardware components also
provide DSP services? (Choose two.)
A. 32-port DSP Daughterboard
B. 96-port DSP Daughterboard
C. 128-port DSP Daughterboard
D. Media Gateway Controller card (MC32B)
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: 920-806
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Advanced Data Networking Technology)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Line-of-sight is one of the boundaries of Radio Frequency (RF) waves. They are also affected by
obstacles that can cause the waves to bend, bounce, or become distorted.Which type of electromagnetic
wave is a radio wave?
A.direct wave
B.ground wave
C.space wave
D.fluid wave
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
Using the exhibit, what do you call the measure of the amount of time the wave takes from the moment it
hits peak intensity to the moment it hits peak intensity again?
A.cycle
B.amplitude
C.frequency
D.wavelength
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large retail store has decided to use a wireless network to attach cash registers and computers to the
network, so that they can rearrange the floor layout without having to pull network cable every time they
rearrange displays. The issue is that when they first tried to implement IEEE 802.11b last year, there was
too much interference from other WLANs and cordless telephones, and the computers received very poor
signal strength.Which change would most help fix this problem?
A.Use 802.11g to increase the number of channels available.
B.Use 802.11a on the 5GHz range with more channels.
C.Use 802.11b on a non-standard channel to keep from conflicting with the other WLANs.
D.Use 802.11b on the alternate 5GHz range with more channels.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer would like to limit access to the research and development network to engineers and their
managers. These employees need the ability to login throughout the building on any PC and to access
the network remotely.Which solution will accomplish this?
A.machine-based authentication using RADIUS authentication
B.PC-based authentication using LDAP authentication
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) with TACACS+
D.policy-based user provisioning with Enterprise Policy Manager and RADIUS
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click on the Exhibit button.
A customer is using PPP to communicate between two locations that are connected by a dial-up circuit.
They are having problems with the link and think that it is an issue with the CHAP authentication. They
have the ability to perform a packet capture on the circuit. They will create a filter looking at the protocol
field in the PPP header to reduce the volume of traffic they need to examine.
Which PPP protocol should they examine to see the CHAP authentication traffic during link setup?
A.Network Layer
B.Link Control Protocol (LCP)
C.Network Control Protocol (NCP)
D.Datalink Control Protocol (DCP)
Answer: B

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