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Exam Code: S10-201
Exam Name: SNIA (SNIA Storage Networking Management & Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-19

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NO.1 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.2 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.4 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.5 A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The
storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports
are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to
the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter
B. SAS-SATA protocol converter
C. cable with two SATA connectors
D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector
Answer: C

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NO.6 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage? (Choose
two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.8 What two benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified
a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you
configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B, D

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NO.11 Which two are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A, E

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NO.12 A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible
and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on
that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate.
B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low.
C. R_A_TOV does not match.
D. HBA Port Type is set to "E-Port"
Answer: A

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NO.13 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.15 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A, E

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NO.16 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.17 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies.? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.18 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.19 Last month, you successfully merged two local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology and
connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilitization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queueing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A

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Exam Code: S10-101
Exam Name: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 163 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-12

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NO.1 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

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NO.2 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 3
D.RAID 5
E.RAID 10
Correct:C D

SNIA original questions   S10-101   S10-101

NO.4 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a
decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A.The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B.The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C.A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D.The domain priority is inconsistent.
Correct:C

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NO.5 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B.Supports up to 126 devices.
C.Lowers propagation delay.
D.Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Correct:A D

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NO.6 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

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NO.7 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A.flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B.flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C.quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D.flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A.tape vault
B.Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C.Nearline storage
D.intelligent storage virtualization
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A.SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B.SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C.SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D.SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Correct:C

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NO.10 What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A.DEC
B.AES
C.Turing
D.SSL
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A.It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B.It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C.It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D.It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Correct:A

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NO.12 What describes RAID 0?
A.mirroring
B.parallel access with parity
C.striping
D.independent access with interleaved parity
Correct:C

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NO.13 What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A.300 MBps
B.1200 MBps
C.1800 MBps
D.2400 MBps
Correct:D

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NO.14 Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server
backplane?
A.gigabit link module
B.interposer card
C.inter-switch link
D.host bus adapter
Correct:D

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NO.15 Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A.switches
B.disk arrays
C.zone sets
D.servers
E.HBAs
Correct:A E

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NO.16 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave
laser at 1 Gbps?
A.500 meters
B.300 meters
C.150 meters
D.70 meters
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A.tier 4
B.tier 3
C.tier 2
D.tier 1
Correct:D

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NO.18 Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Correct:A

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NO.19 Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A.direct access to data is available from single server
B.only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C.storage capacity is captive to a single server
D.storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E.attached to the host computer by a switch
Correct:A C

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NO.20 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: S10-100
Exam Name: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-11

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NO.1 A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200
kilometers from their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of
managing storage allocation?
A. host-based LVM
B. in-band appliance
C. out-of-band appliance
D. array-based LUN masking
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. file system
B. user interface
C. process scheduler
D. communication protocols
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE
B. SNMP
C. NDMP
D. Policy for QoS
E. IP over Fibre Channel
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 What is the minimal iSCSI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion,
modification or deletion?
A. none
B. encryption (IPsec)
C. Initiator and Target Authentication
D. digest for header and data integrity
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP
B. SATA
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit
B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit
C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number
D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit
Answer: B

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NO.8 A small Internet startup company needs to implement a backup solution in their environment. Cost is
a large concern, and performance is not as critical since their environment mainly sits idle during off hours.
If a backup is not completed successfully, the customer has little concern and is able to run new backups
at any time. Which solution meets the customer's requirements for providing a low-cost solution and
satisfies their current demand?
A. LAN-free backup
B. server-free backup
C. over-the-network backup
D. SAN without LAN-free backup
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which protocol is used for backups on an ethernet based network?
A. FCIP
B. NDMP
C. iDMP
D. iSNS
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. as the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases
B. as the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases
C. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases
D. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface Card
(NIC)?
A. link aggregation
B. 2 Gb/s data rate
C. larger frame size
D. TCP/IP segmentation offload
Answer: D

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NO.12 What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA
B. VSAN
C. ISL
D. VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-point bus or loop are
physically connected?
A. hub
B. switch
C. gateway
D. managed switch
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company's application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage subsystem
replaced with an FC array. The new system's O/S, volume manager, application and database are
incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration
B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to
new host using NDMP.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships
in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM
B. SRM
C. DRM
D. DMTF
Answer: A

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NO.17 What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port
B. N_Port to F_Port
C. E_Port to E_Port
D. NL_Port to E_Port
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center
B. Increase storage resource utilization
C. Decrease network traffic due to backups
D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU
interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS
B. FC-VI
C. FC-CT
D. FC-SW
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 400 MB/s
Answer: D

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