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Exam Code: 1Z0-051
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 292 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

Oracle test questions   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.2 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.3 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

Oracle questions   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.5 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

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NO.7 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.8 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

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NO.10 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.13 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

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NO.14 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

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NO.18 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

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NO.19 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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NO.20 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-046
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: Managing Oracle on Linux for DBAs)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 You attempt to modify the ksms.s library and relink the Oracle database executable to use the address
0X15000000 for the System Global Area (SGA). You receive an error.
Which set of commands would you use to restore the original settings?
A.echo 0X1000000 > ksms.s
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.s
B.echo 0X15000000 > ksms.s
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
C.make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.s
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
D.genksms > ksms.s
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ksms.o
make -f ins_rdbms.mk ioracle
E.genksms -s 0X10000000 > ksms.o
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 Examine the content of the /proc/sys/kernel/tainted file on your Linux machine:
[root@edtdr6p1 root]# cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted
1
What will happen when you install Oracle Database 10g on this machine?
A.Installation will fail because of the tainted kernel.
B.Installation will be successful, but Oracle will not provide support for the database product.
C.Installation will be successful. Oracle will provide support for the database product but not for the
operating system (OS).
D.Installation will be successful and Oracle will provide support for the database product as well as the
OS.
E.Successful installation and Oracle support for database product as well as Linux OS will depend on the
module tainting the kernel.
ANSWER: E

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NO.3 The OS user BOB is a member the osoper OS group in the database server. You want BOB :
Which of the option would fulfill the requirement?
A.Assign the sysdba privilege to BOB.
B.Assign the osdba OS group to BOB.
C.Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter to SHARED.
D.Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE initialization parameter to EXCLUSIVE.
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 Match the following commands with the purpose they are used for:
i chmod a) To create a file with the desired time stamp
ii touch b) To use the variable of the parent shell in child shell
iii alias c) To give write permission to a directory
iv uname d) To simplify long commands
v export e) To see the Linux release number
A.i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c, v-b
B.i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-d, v-b
C.i-c, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-b
D.i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-e, v-b
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 View the Exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the output of the cat /proc/partitions command? (Choose two.)
A.The hard disk has four partitions.
B.The hard disk has six partitions.
C.The swap partition is not shown in the output.
D.The major column shows the device number with partitions.
E.The #blocks column shows the number of inode blocks in that partition.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.6 Which command would you use to identify the users that belong to the oradba group?
A.id -G
B.uname -g
C.grep

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Exam Code: 1Z1-403
Exam Name: Oracle (Enterprise Linux System Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-19

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NO.1 While importing user accounts in bulk along with passwords using the newusers command, you noticed
that user passwords are saved in the /etc/shadow file in the crypt format.
How would you enable the newusers command to use the preferred MD5 format when writing passwords
to the /etc/shadow file?
A. Add the MD5_ENAB=yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
B. Add the MD5_CRYPT yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
C. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
D. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/security/limits.conf file.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux in the Graphical User Interface(GUI) mode on your machine
and are at the package group selection panel. You do not want to customize the packages to be installed.
Therefore, select the option "install default software packages."
Which three packages would be in the default selection group? (Choose three.)
A. GNOME
B. Webserver
C. System Tools
D. Printer Support
E. Windows File Server (SMB)
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 You are logged in to server1 and want to allow remote connections to server1 through X Display
Manager Control Protocol (XDMCP). You change the entry "Enable=false" to "Enable=true" in the
"[xdmcp]" section of the gdm.conf configuration file.
To test the XDMCP configuration, you log in to station1 as smith and try to connect to server1 by using the
following command:
[smith@station1]$ X -query server1.example.com :1
What is the result?
A. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
B. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
C. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
D. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
Answer: A

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NO.4 To find the value of the DISPLAY environment variable, you issue the following command:
[rooot@server1]#echo $DISPLAY
0
[rooot@server1]#
What do you interpret from the environment variable's value?
A. Graphical applications would make a local UNIX socket connection.
B. Graphical applications would make a remote UNIX socket connection.
C. Graphical applications would make the first network connection to TCP port 6001.
D. Graphical applications would make the second network connection to TCP port 6000.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux in the Graphical User Interface (GUI) mode on your
machine. From the package selection screen, you select one of the package groups.
Which two statements are NOT true in this context? (Choose two.)
A. Only the optional packages would be installed.
B. All the optional packages are also installed along with the package group.
C. Both the base packages and all the optional packages would be installed.
D. The selection of a base package does not depend on an optional package.
E. Only the base packages and the auto-selected optional packages would be installed.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 You have written a udev rule as shown below:
KERNEL=="fb[0-9]*", NAME="fb/%n", SYMLINK+="%k", GROUP="video"
KERNEL=="fd[0-9]*", OWNER="john"
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The user john would own all the floppy devices.
B. The user john would own all the floppy and frame buffer devices.
C. The video group on the system would own all the floppy devices.
D. The video group on the system could be controlled by john only.
E. The video group on the system would own all the frame buffer devices.
Answer: AE

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NO.7 You have the default syslogd configuration in your system. You plugged in a USB keydrive into the
system.
Which command would help you to find the bus and the device number of the keydrive?
A. lsusb
B. lsmod
C. insmod
D. cat /proc/self/mounts
Answer: A

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NO.8 The organization you work for wants to set up a new machine with Oracle Enterprise Linux and has
three requirements:
1. The filesystem should be consistent.
2: The old data should not reappear in the files after an unclean shutdown.
3: The filesystem data should be written to the disk before metadata.
In order to meet these requirements, you have set the ext3 journaling mode as data=writeback.
Which requirements have you met?
A. only 1
B. only 2
C. only 3
D. both 1and 3
E. both 2 and 3
F. both 1 and 2
G. All the three requirements are met.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are in runlevel 5 working at the tty1 terminal on server1. To configure the gdm display manager,
you issue the following command but this results in an error as shown below:
[root@server1]#gdmsetup
(gdmsetup:6326): Gtk-WARNING **: cannot open display:
What could be the reason for the error?
A. The /etc/inittab file is corrupted.
B. The Xserver on the system is not running.
C. The xfs service is not running on the system.
D. The runlevel in the /etc/inittab file is missing.
E. The command only works in a graphical environment.
Answer: E

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NO.10 The system you logged in is running in runlevel 5. You want to customize X and want to have a
consistent environment regardless of how X is started.
Which step is recommended?
A. Delete the ~/.Xclients file and use the ~/.xinitrc file.
B. Delete ~/.Xclients and ~/.xsession and use the ~/.xinitrc file.
C. Delete ~/.xinitrc and ~/.xsession and use the ~/.Xclients file.
D. Delete ~/.xinitrc and ~/.Xclients and use the ~/.xsession file.
E. Delete the ~/.Xclients file and use both ~/.xinitrc and ~/.xsession files.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two statements correctly define Virtual Network Computing (VNC)? (Choose two.)
A. It is a client/server application.
B. It does not provide any protection to remote X connections.
C. It allows entire desktops to be displayed and controlled remotely.
D. It is used to connect to a remote Linux machine only from a Linux machine.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which three statements are true about the Linux swap file system? (Choose three.)
A. The Linux user data cannot be written to the Linux swap space.
B. High-priority swap spaces would be exhausted only after exhausting swap spaces with equal priorities.
C. The Linux kernel code and data are not swappable and are never moved to swap file system from
physical memory.
D. If too much space is allocated for swap, errant programs may run for an extended time and use up
RAM and swap space.
E. When most of the system's real memory is in use, and there is a need for more, some data would be
moved into the swap file system to free real RAM memory for use by applications or for kernel use, such
as for driver buffers, files, or network packets.
Answer: CDE

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NO.13 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux on a machine and are at the stage of swap filesystem
creation. You want to ensure that swap contains twice the amount of RAM available in the system but do
not know the total available memory.
You can use the free command but do not have a prompt to execute the command. Which key
combination would take you to a command prompt?
A. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F2]
B. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F3]
C. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F4]
D. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F1]
Answer: A

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NO.14 Match the following scripts and their applicability:
1. ./.xinitrc a) applies if X is started directly, or if ./.xsession does not exist and X is started viaa display
manager
2) ./.xsession b) applies when X is started directly
3) ./.Xclients c) applies when X is started from a display manager
A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
D. 1-a, 2-c, 2-b
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have bound your system to the Network Information Service (NIS) domain ORACLE and all
client-side configurations are done. The users report a problem that they are not able to log in through
NIS accounts, whereas local users are successfully authenticated, after the system reboots.
As a Linux administrator, you executed the nisdomainname command and you get the output "(none)",
and no traces of yp are found in the /var/log/messages file.
What would you do to resolve this error? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Re-create the NIS domain on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
B. Restart the ypserv service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
C. Restart the network service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
D. Use the chkconfig command to set the ypbind service to be on at the desired runlevels.
E. Use the ntsysv command to select the ypbind service to be automatically started with the desired
runlevels.
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Identify two true statements about Virtual Network Computing (VNC). (Choose two.)
A. It is a client/server application.
B. It allows entire desktops to be displayed remotely.
C. It does not provide any protection to remote X connections.
D. It allows applications to be run remotely and displayed only locally.
E. It is used to connect to a remote Linux machine only from a Linux machine.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 You are currently working in runlevel 3. The X server is configured correctly and the default runlevel is
set to 5 in the /etc/inittab file. To find the default desktop you issue the following command:
[root@server1]#cat /etc/sysconfig/desktop
[root@server1]#
You find the file empty. What will be the effect when you try to go to the runlevel 5?
A. The system defaults to kdm and launch KDE.
B. The system defaults to xdm and launch GNOME.
C. The system defaults to gdm and launch GNOME
D. The system will fail to log into the graphical mode.
Answer: C

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NO.18 During the installation of Oracle Enterprise Linux, you want to customize the packages to be installed.
You select one of the package groups that has both base and optional packages.
Which statement about the packages is true?
A. Only the optional packages would be installed.
B. All the base packages and the optional packages would be installed.
C. The selection of a base package does not depend on an optional package.
D. Only the base packages and the auto selected optional packages would be installed.
Answer: D

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NO.19 The user smith executed the mozilla command, located in /usr/bin and owned by the root user.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by root's permissions.
B. When started by smith, smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes started by the
initial process.
C. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by smith's permissions
and not by root's.
D. When started by the user smith, the user smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes
started by the initial process would be owned by the system user associated with mozilla.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about an X server? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple X servers can be run on the same host.
B. The first X server on a remote host listens on port 6000.
C. The first X server on a remote host listens on port 6001.
D. Only a single X server can run on a machine at any given point of time.
Answer: AB

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NO.21 You have a /dev/md1 redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array on your system as shown
below:
[root@server1 ~]# cat /proc/mdstat
Personalities : [raid 5]
md1 : active raid5 sdd1[3] sdc1[1] sdb1[0]
594176 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [3/2] [UU_]
unused devices:
The /dev/md1 RAID array is mounted on /data. You issued the command:
mdadm --fail /dev/md1 /dev/sdc1 /dev/sdb1
Which statements are true about the RAID array after you issue this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The kernel would report a Buffer I/O error on the RAID device /dev/md1.
B. The RAID array would be destroyed but the data could be recovered from the RAID disks.
C. The RAID array would be completely destroyed including the super block of the file system.
D. The RAID array could be reconstructed using new RAID partitions that synchronize with the /dev/sdd1
disk partition.
Answer: AC

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NO.22 You want to install the ieee80211 module on your Linux system. While building the module, you receive
the following error:
Make [2]: *** [ieee 80211-1.2.17/ieee80211_module.o] Error 1
Make [1]: *** [_module_/ieee80211-1.2.17] Error 2
Make [1]: Leaving directory '/usr/src/kernels/2.6.9-42.0.0.0.1.EL-i686'
Make: *** [modules] Error 2
What do you infer from this error?
A. The ieee80211 module conflicts with the current kernel version.
B. The dependency modules for ieee80211 are not installed on the system.
C. The ieee80211 module given is not supported by the machine architecture.
D. The kernel source package, which must be installed to compile external device drivers, is not installed
on the system.
Answer: D

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NO.23 You work for XYZ organization and are setting up a new Linux box. The organization wants the user's
data on the system to be safe even in the event of a crash of the root filesystem.
Which step do you think would help the administrator achieve the organization's objective?
A. Have /opt directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
B. Have /home directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
C. Have /var directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
D. Have /usr directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
Answer: B

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NO.24 Being the system administrator for XYZ corporation, you have been given the task of setting up a new
Linux box.
The new machine has to meet the following criteria:
1. There should be a provision for expanding one filesystem without affecting the other filesystems.
2: The user data should be safe in the event of root file system crash.
3: The filesystems should support journaling.
Which three actions must you take to meet all the requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use ext3 as the filesystem.
B. Use ext2 as the filesystem.
C. Have the /usr/ directory on its own filesystem.
D. Have the /home/ directory on its own filesystem.
E. Separate the directory structure across multiple partitions.
Answer: ADE

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NO.25 You are downloading a text file from the Web into a directory on an ext2 filesystem. The system crash
after the data blocks are written onto the disk but before the metadata is written.
What is the status of the file after this transaction?
A. The file contents can be seen only using the cat command.
B. The file can be accessed using only the vi editor and does not require to be repaired using fsck.
C. The file cannot be accessed and must be repaired using fsck inorder to access the file contents.
D. The file contents can be accessed using only the emacs text editor and does not require to be repaired
using fsck .
Answer: C

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NO.26 As an administrator, you execute the following command to verify the integrity of mysql:
[root@server1]#rpm -Va mysql
S.5....T c /etc/my.cnf
What attributes of the /etc/my.cnf file have changed?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership, and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership, and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D

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NO.27 You have trouble in booting the Linux system and want to troubleshoot it. To find the cause, you want to
make the kernel start the bash program in place of init.
What would you do to achieve this objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Pass S as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
B. Pass 1 as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
C. Pass init=/bin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
D. Pass INIT=/sbin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You want to configure the display login program to display the face browser of user accounts for
system logon.
Which two display managers support this feature? (Choose two.)
A. gdm
B. kdm
C. twm
D. xdm
Answer: AB

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NO.29 You want to make Oracle Enterprise Linux coexist with Microsoft Windows on your machine. You
install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the default boot loader configuration and then install Microsoft
WindowsXP. You reboot the system after installation and the system boots directly into the Windows
operating system without showing the Grand Unified Boot Loader (GRUB) menu.
Which two steps could you have taken to avoid this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader on MBR and then install Microsoft WindowsXP.
B. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader on
Master Boot Record (MBR).
C. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader at the
first sector of the /boot partition.
D. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader at the first sector of the /boot partition and then
install Microsoft WindowsXP.
Answer: BC

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NO.30 You have server1 configured as the Virtual Network Computing (VNC) server. There is no firewall
between server1 and station1. You have logged on to station1 as root and want to connect to server1
using VNC. You issue the following command:
[root@station1]# vncviewer server1.2
Which statement is true?
A. server1 provides an encrypted connection to station1.
B. The xinetd service on station1 is not mandatory for the VNC connection.
C. The desktop of server1 is shared with station1 without prompting for a password.
D. station1 is prompted for a password and the desktop of server1 is shared with station1 only when the
correct password is entered.
Answer: D

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NO.1 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Increase sales by 10% in Q3
B. Decrease turnover company-wide
C. Ensure customer ratings of 7.5 or greater within 6 months
D. Provide sales personnel with access to all accounts in their region
E. Add maiden name field to all account detail screens
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 When determining how to best control access to data, the Business Analyst must have an
understanding of the differences between master data and customer data.Which are examples of master
data? Choose two.
A. Literature
B. Products
C. Contacts
D. Accounts
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which statement about views and responsibilities is true?
A. Each responsibility assigned to a user must have entirely separate views assigned
B. A Manager responsibility and User responsibility may share views
C. Manager and User responsibilities will have completely different views
D. Users have access to the views associated with only one responsibility at a time
Answer: B

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NO.4 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the parent business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Contact
B. Account Entry
C. Account
D. Account Detail
Answer: C

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NO.5 If hyperlinks in Siebel Tools do not appear, what might the problem be?
A. The Drilldown Add-in has not been installed
B. The Web update protection key is invalid
C. Tools is not properly connected to the datasource
D. You do not have the Developer responsibility
Answer: D

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NO.6 When a user does not have access to any views in a screen, which is true?
A. Neither the screen tab nor the Site Menu option is displayed
B. The views are listed only on the Site Map
C. The views are only accessible through a drilldown
D. The Screen containing the views is empty
Answer: A

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NO.7 Limiting data displayed in the My Opportunities view to opportunities associated with a job role within
the organization is an example of what?
A. Opportunities associated with their user ID
B. Opportunities for which they are the primary
C. Opportunities associated with their position
D. Opportunities that they created
Answer: C

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NO.8 The business analyst must consider the functional dependencies of the functionalities being
implemented to determine how implementations should be phased. Based on functional dependence,
which functionality would be implemented first?
A. Fulfillment
B. Orders
C. Quotes
D. Opportunities
Answer: D

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NO.9 If you need to edit your company structure in the Siebel application, which of the following are you able
to do? Choose two.
A. Change the name of an organization
B. Remove an organization
C. Delete a division
D. Change a division's organization
Answer: AD

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NO.10 A business analyst must understand the integration options available to identify the most appropriate
solution for the customer.Your customer has a large number of systems that need to be integrated with
one another. They have been struggling with their integration because all of the systems have slightly
different data structures. Now they are adding Siebel applications to their enterprise and are becoming
overwhelmed with the challenge of integrating all of their systems. Which solution would you recommend
to your customer?
A. Use EAI to bring all of the data from all of the systems into the Siebel application
B. Use an Integration Server to connect the systems
C. Create a peer-to-peer connection between each system
D. Run a batch process every night to get all data into the Siebel application and then peer-to-peer to all
other systems
Answer: B

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NO.11 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Siebel Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
B. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
C. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
D. Dynamically generates database-specific SQL statements in response to Object Manager requests
Answer: C

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NO.12 A business analyst works with the customer on developing good business objectives for the
implementation project. Identify the three most acceptable business objectives below. Choose three.
A. Decrease revenue losses by 30% within two quarters
B. Add four additional customers each month for the first year
C. Change the color of all screens in the application to match the company color scheme
D. Increase customer survey responses by 5% with each survey
E. Increase customer loyalty in the south region
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 Business analysts must be able to describe the relationship between Siebel software components to
successfully identify customer requirements. What is the role of the Enterprise Server in the Siebel
architecture?
A. Platform that supports the interactive, batch, and background processing for all Siebel clients
B. Groups Siebel Servers in a logical way so Siebel Server Manager can administer them
C. Controls server components running on a machine
D. Stores component definitions and assignments, operational parameters, and connectivity information
Answer: B

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NO.14 On an implementation project, there are strong indicators from the organization that implementing the
new application will meet resistance. You fear that this may impact the success of your project. Which
element of your project will most directly address this issue?
A. Superior technology
B. Change management
C. Business processes
D. Technical support
Answer: B

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NO.15 Properly planning and conducting business process workshops is a critical element of the Business
Analyst role.Which is NOT a valid part of the questioning framework for a business process workshop?
A. Verifying that the process meets the customer's needs
B. Using the Siebel application demonstration as the primary enabler of the process
C. Confirming that the process supports the stated business objectives
D. Verifying that the steps in the process reflect the customer's activities
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which is a hosted solution that provides core functionality to casual users, business partners, and
remote divisions?
A. Siebel CRM Enterprise
B. Siebel CRM Professional Edition
C. Siebel CRM OnDemand
D. Siebel Analytics
Answer: C

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NO.17 What effect does considering the change management implication have on an implementation?
A. Positively affects user adoption and long-term net benefits
B. Dramatically shortens implementation time
C. Significantly reduces the cost of implementation
D. Reduces the number of people required to work on the implementation
Answer: A

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NO.18 Based on the About View screen shown below, what is the Contact business component on the
Accounts screen?
A. Child business component
B. Business object
C. Grandchild business component
D. Parent business component
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NO.19 Your customer has a number of legacy systems that work differently from the Siebel application. How
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A. Leave the decision entirely up to your customer
B. Explain that the Siebel application should never be modified
C. Perform a cost-benefit analysis to decide which approach is best
D. Examine the available development resources to see if the work can be done before the project
deadline
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true about access to views and data?
A. Users with the same responsibility have the same view and data access
B. View access for a responsibility in one organization will be different in another organization
C. View access and data access are completely independent of one another
D. User ID, position, and responsibility control access to data
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NO.1 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.6 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.8 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.14 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.18 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.19 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.20 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.1 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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NO.8 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.13 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.18 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.20 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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