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Exam Code: 4A0-110
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Advanced Troubleshooting)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-22

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NO.1 Based on the following configuration, which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. No OPSF adjacency found on Node 1
B. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-3
D. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-4
E. OSPF is enabled on Node 1
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration
information below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: D

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NO.3 Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration
information shown below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following debug statements can be used to troubleshoot if the OSPF adjacency is staying
at xstart state? Select two answers.
A. debug router ospf rtm
B. debug router ospf packet dbdescr
C. debug router ospf neighbor
D. debug router ospf packet hello
E. debug router ospf spf
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Two routers are physically connected running ISIS. ISIS L2 adjacency is up and running but L1
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Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level is not configured on both routers
B. The ISIS interface type should be configured as point-to-point interfaces
C. ISIS System IDs are not configured on both routers
D. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
E. ISIS level capacity are not configured on both routers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered
macroflows.
A. SAPs
B. SDPs
C. Services
D. Queues
E. Schedulers
F. Forwarding classes
Answer: F

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NO.2 How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
(Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.9 Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)
A. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,
B. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.
C. 802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.
D. 802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.
E. 802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header
F. 802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.
Answer: D,F

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NO.10 Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its
own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing
functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on
forwarding class.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 8
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 4A0-M01
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
-MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
-Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - ST3
-Reference 2 receives QL - DUS
-BITS sets QL-STU
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC2
B. QL-PRS
C. QL-ST3
D. QL-STU
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
With what IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 message did the slave node set the Unicast
message rates used by the master?
A. Announce granted
B. Announce request
C. Sync granted
D. Sync request
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click on the exhibit.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots
The command result illustrates which OC-3 port characteristic?
A. On STS1-1,the second VT1.5 in the second VTG is set for IPCP encapsulation
B. On STS1-1,the second DS1 channel group in the second VTG isoperationallyup
C. On STS1-1, the second E1 channel group in the second TUG-2 is operationally up
D. On STS1-1, the second VT2 in the second TUG-2 is set for IPCP encapsulation
Answer: C

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NO.4 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport,
which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
* MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
* BITS sets QL-SSU-B
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC1
B. QL-PRC
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-STU
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots.
The command result illustrates which circuit status?
A. The E1 channel group is administratively turned down
B. The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down
C. The IMA bundle has no operational member links
D. The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click on the exhibit.
The command result indicates which condition on the Inverse Multiplexing over ATM (IMA) bundle?
A. The number of active links has dropped belowthe minimum threshold
B. The associated Layer 3 interface is administratively down
C. The remote IMA bundle is administrativelydown
D. The parent OC-3 is operationally down
Answer: C

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NO.8 The IETF is know for which standardization effort.?
A. It develops recommendations for core network functionality, broadband service delivery and next
generation services
B. It maintains Requests for Comment (RFC) that describe technical solutions to Internet challenges
C. It creates single, integrated network design guidelines to support mobile broadband services
D. It develops radio access services and systems for high capacity mobile networks
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
Which IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 parent clock value does the slave first consider
when choosing its master?
A. GM Clock Priority1
B. GM Clock ID
C. GM Clock Priority2
D. GM Clock Class
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP) negotiation
process?
A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can
initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click on the exhibit.
Given the configuration shown and the following conditions:
* The external reference is offline
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
Which quality level will the SAR router advertise to its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) peers?
A. QL-DNU
B. QL-EEC1
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-PRC
E. QL-UNC
Answer: B

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NO.12 If an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 slave times out announce messages with the
master, to which state does the slave port transition to choose another potential master?
A. Initial
B. Listening
C. Passive
D. Un-calibrated
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?
A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?
A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate
C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master
and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base
station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B

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NO.17 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1
containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11
D. VC-12
Answer: B

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NO.18 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which command creates the OC-3 path's Administrative Unit (AU)-4 Virtual
Container (VC) capacity?
A. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path au-4
B. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path sts3
C. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path tug-3
D. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path vc-4
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which synchronization technique supports time of day and phase synchronization?
A. IEEE 1588 v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)v2
B. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) line timing
D. Synchronization Ethernet (SyncE)/Synchronization Status Message (SSM)
Answer: A

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NO.20 An SROS router obtains its timing exclusively from its BITS input port. The router sets Quality Level
(QL) SONET Traceability Unknown (STU) on this Superframe (SF) framed DS1 BITS reference.
What must you configure on this master router to pass the best clock quality level to the downstream
Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) slave nodes while maintaining traceability to the DS1 source?
A. Enable "ql-override prs" on the BITS reference
B. Enable "ql-override prs" on the master's SyncE ports
C. Enable "ql-selection prs" on the BITS reference
D. Set the master router to choose its source by quality level
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 4A0-104
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Services Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 141 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-23

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NO.1 Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations?
(Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A

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NO.3 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B

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NO.4 The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS
transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C

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NO.5 Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by
which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-23

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NO.1 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.2 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?
A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter
connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct
Answer: F

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NO.5 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?
A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area
Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area.
D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider.
E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE,
which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?
A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.10 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown
in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by
default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?
A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.
E. The SGi interface.
Answer: E

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NO.15 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?
A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720
Answer: F

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NO.17 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?
A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the
HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.19 The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW. Which of the
following transport protocols is used by this interface?
A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?
A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.
D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-13

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NO.1 Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet's source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet's DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 What is an SLA? (Choose two)
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter
across a provider's network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer
traffic across the provider's network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their
traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement
within the provider's network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing
them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered
macroflows.
A. SAPs
B. SDPs
C. Services
D. Queues
E. Schedulers
F. Forwarding classes
Answer: F

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NO.5 How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant
(first) bits define precedence.
A. 8, 6, 3
B. 8, 8, 6
C. 16, 8, 4
D. 8, 6, 4
E. 24, 16, 8
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its
own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing
functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on
forwarding class.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 8
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)
A. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,
B. 802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.
C. 802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.
D. 802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.
E. 802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header
F. 802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.
Answer: D,F

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NO.11 Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
(Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.12 Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS.?
A. Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss
B. Latency, FIFO, WRED
C. Delay, jitter, packet loss
D. SNR, queue depth, latency
E. Attenuation, dispersion, latency
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the exhibit button below.
Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet
encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:
Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1
TCP port number = 23
DSCP value = nc1
Dot1pvalue = 3
A. H2
B. NC
C. L2
D. EF
E. H1
F. BE
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?
A. 010011
B. 100010
C. 010001
D. 001100
E. 010010
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 4A0-109
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Triple Play Services)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-13

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NO.1 Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best
answer.
A. P.C.
B. TV with STB
C. Gaming console
D. LAN switch
E. Any Ethernet connected device
Answer: E

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NO.2 True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2.
A. NAT support
B. Support Routed and bridged mode
C. Multicast (IGMP) support
D. Support IP packet filtering
E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server?
A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable
B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses
C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server
D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode
E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode
Answer: D

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NO.5 Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG
contain:
A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero
C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG
D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones
E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone?
A. Home
B. Broadband Access
C. Broadband Aggregation
D. Broadband Metro
E. IP Services Edge
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the
network?
A. The invention of ATM
B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM
C. The usage of IP in the home network
D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in:
A. The customer home
B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI)
C. The provider Central Office (CO)
D. The video headend
Answer: C

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NO.9 The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following?
A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT)
D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT)
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be:
A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM
B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM
C. Neither (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 4A0-108
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-04

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NO.1 Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B.01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C.01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D.00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E.00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F.01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A.01-00-5e-80-00-01
B.01-00-5e-22-41-40
C.01-00-5e-22-28-01
D.00-01-5e-80-00-01
E.01-00-5e-00-00-01
F.01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer:E

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NO.3 Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery?
(Choose two)
A.Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B.Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the source
C.There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D.All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E.Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer:A C

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NO.4 Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network
receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A.Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B.Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C.Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D.Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E.Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer:B

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NO.5 How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A.27
B.5
C.28
D.9
E.23
Answer:E

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NO.6 The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A.Authentication
B.Guaranteed Delivery
C.Device Security
D.Preventing packet forwarding loops
E.Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same
time?
A.233.44.12.35
B.234.45.12.35
C.235.46.12.35
D.236.174.12.35
E.237.171.12.35
Answer:C D

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NO.8 What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A.239.0.0.0/8
B.233.x.y.0/24
C.224.0.0.0/24
D.232.0.0.0/8
Answer:D

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NO.9 An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which layer of
the OSI stack?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
E.Layer 7
Answer:C

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NO.10 The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A.00-01-5e
B.01-01-53
C.01-01-5e
D.01-00-5e
E.01-00-53
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-13

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?
A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards
theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN
server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE's IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.2 The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW. Which of the
following transport protocols is used by this interface?
A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?
A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter
connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct
Answer: F

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?
A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.
D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best
answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?
A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of
the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE,
which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?
A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?
A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the
HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.
Answer: F

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NO.12 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?
A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720
Answer: F

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NO.13 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by
default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?
A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.
Answer: E

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?
A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area
Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area.
D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider.
E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown
in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: E

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NO.17 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN
when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the
GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the
GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: C

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NO.18 There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW, On the
SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the "Restart Count" value of the PGW?
A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?
A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?
A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.
E. The SGi interface.
Answer: E

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