2013年10月31日星期四

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Exam Code: LOT-802
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 System Administration Update)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 .Satchel, the Domino administrator, is attempting to implement design note compression on the
resource database. He is unable, though, to see the property selection to enable this
feature. Which of the following is preventing him from seeing this selection in the database
properties box?
A. He is not manager of the database
B. He has not deferred index creation
C. He has not enabled the new Domino 8 ODS
D. He does not have the designer client installed on his workstation
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following determines which features are available during Lotus Notes install, update,
and remove functions?
A. Site.xml
B. Smart upgrade
C. Desktop policy
D. Install manifest
Answer: D

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NO.3 .An organization has sent you a copy of their update site database for you to import.
However, all of the features that are embedded point to their server over HTTP. Your
company will not allow the Notes client to access that server. Which of the following
describes the best solution?
A. Rebuild the application to point to an alternate update site
B. Use the Composite Applications Editor to specify your update site for feature
requirements
C. Extract all of the features and site.xml in the provided site update database and import the
features back into your update site
D. Delete the features from the provided site update database and import your features into the
provided database and point users to the remote HTTP server
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A. Cleanup Script
B. Fault Recovery
C. maximum Fault Limits
D. Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Martin has been directed to configure Sametime integration for Domino Web Access
(DWA) on the Domino 8 server. Which of the following is required in the server document for
Sametime to function correctly inside of DWA?
A. JavaServlet Manager
B. HTTPServlet Manager
C. DominoServlet Manager
D. Sametime Servlet Manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 .Which of the following mail features are not available in the basic version of the Lotus
Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Which of the following type of permanent failure response is sent when you enable the
Domino server to reject ambiguous names through directory lookups against the primary
Domino directory?
A. Mailbox unavailable
B. The recipient is unknown
C. The mail server is unavailable
D. The recipient is rejected for policy reasons
Answer: D

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NO.8 .You have elected to create a marker so clients can update their reference to a database called
MARKETING.NSF. You did not select a designated destination server. Which of the following is
the result of this action?
A. The client will remove the bookmark reference for the database
B. The client will search all servers in the domain for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark
C. The client will search all known cluster servers only for a replica of the database and
modify the bookmark
D. The client will prompt the user to specify servers to search for a replica of the database
and modify the bookmark
Answer: A

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NO.9 .You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from
searching databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the
following locations is this configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

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NO.10 .Which of the following is required on the WebSphere server for Lotus Notes users who use
composite applications that contain portlet elements?
A. A Lotus Notes 8 client
B. Server client installer
C. The user's Lotus Notes id file
D. A Domino 8 server installation
Answer: B

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NO.11 .The Lotus Notes 8 and integrated Sametime client may access the provisioning server
through which of the following methods?
A. SSL only
B. HTTP only
C. HTTP and NRPC
D. SSL and SSO only
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Denny, a Notes user, maintains a large amount of mail in his inbox. The administrator has
designated that Inbox Cleanup will occur on mail older than 14 days. Which of the
following is the result of the administrator enabling this feature?
A. All mail older than 14 days will be removed from the inbox
B. All mail older than 14 days will be deleted from themailfile
C. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to a new folder titled "expired"
D. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to the trash folder and must be restored by the user
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Each time David restarts the agent manager, certain agents that should run only once are
running unscheduled. Which of the following steps may he perform to alleviate the issue
while still allowing the agents to run as required?
A. Set the agents to run on server restart only
B. Remove the server name from the agent security tab
C. Set the agent manager not to start by removing it from the notes.ini server tasks line
D. Make copies of the necessary agents into a new database and move that database out of the
data directory until necessary
Answer: A

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NO.14 .You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT
available to configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

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NO.15 .In general, how much space will a DB2 enabled Notes database utilize as compared to a
replica in the standard NSF format?
A. Equal size
B. Half the size
C. Two times more
D. Four times more
Answer: D

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NO.16 .Troy, the Domino administrator, needs to update the Lotus Notes Standard 8.x users with a Lotus
Notes maintenance release and a new shelf application. Which of the following is
needed to perform this update?
A. Smart Update
B. Siteupdate.nsf
C. Site Upgrade and Lotus Links
D. Smart Upgrade and Siteupdate.nsf
Answer: D

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NO.17 .The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which
of the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer: D

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NO.18 .Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must
be used only for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoidsNAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes
C. Thishelp you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that
is configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.19 .The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the
following groups?
A. SYSADM
B. MANAGERS
C. DB2ADMIN
D. ADMINISTRATORS
Answer: A

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NO.20 .The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions
for DB2. Which of the following are enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A. Replication
B. DB2 group locking
C. ACLs and reader lists
D. DB2 container storage
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-840
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Configuring Domino Web Servers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which one of the following statements regarding the Certificate Authority (CA) is true?
A. The CA issues only Internet certificates.
B. Access to the certifier ID must be granted.
C. The CA issues both Lotus Notes and Internet certificates.
D. Access to a certifier ID password must be provided to all registration authorities.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Web rules are applied to HTTP requests from Web browsers in a particular order. Which of the following
best describes the order that they are applied?
A. Response, supplemental, and directory
B. Substitution, supplemental, and response
C. HTTP response header, redirection, and directory
D. Substitution, redirection, and HTTP response headers
Answer: D

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NO.3 While creating Internet Site documents, you do not select a specific server from your environment to
host the Web site. What is the result of this action?
A. All servers in the domain may host this site.
B. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any server.
C. All servers with no default Internet Site specified will serve this site.
D. Any server with the same organizational certifier may serve the Web site.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is esign locking?enabled for
WebDAV?Certain clients utilizing WebDAV attempt to lock WebDAV items. Where is ?esign
locking?enabled for WebDAV?
A. The Global Web settings document
B. The server configuration document in the Domino Directory
C. The Web Site document that is specified for the WebDAV domain
D. The Design tab of the Database Properties dialog box for each WebDAV database
Answer: D

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NO.5 Kyle wants to specify an alternate location for HTML files to be stored on the Domino server. Which
field would he modify to achieve this?
A. HTML Database
B. Icon URL Path
C. HTML Directory
D. Icon Directory
Answer: C

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NO.6 Domino allows you to move files from one directory to another on the same Web server. What type of
rule should be created so new links do not need to be created?
A. Direction Rule
B. Directory Rule
C. Redirection Rule
D. Substitution Rule
Answer: D

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NO.7 A user sends a search request to Server A, but some of the search results are actually located in a
database on Server B. What must be configured for Server A to generate the HTML for the search results
page to point to Server B?
A. The earch results URL?field in the server documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the server
document
B. The earch results URL?field in the domain documentThe ?earch results URL?field in the domain
document
C. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the server documentThe ?enerating references to
the Web server?field in the server document
D. The enerating references to the Web server?field in the domain documentThe ?enerating references to
the Web server?field in the domain document
Answer: C

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NO.8 Open, inactive sessions can prevent users from accessing the server. What time limit can be set so
inactive sessions do not remain open with the Domino server?
A. CGI timeout
B. Output timeout
C. Request timeout
D. Persistent connection timeout
Answer: D

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NO.9 Response header rules have been placed on your Domino Web server. When are these rules applied
to URL requests?
A. After substitution rules
B. Before redirection rules
C. Concurrent with global rules
D. Sequentially behind document redirection
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which type of Web Rule points incoming URLs to another URL?
A. Directory
B. Redirection
C. Substitution
D. HTTP Response Header
Answer: B

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NO.11 Josie made a change to the Web site's site configuration document which caused WebDav to stop
functioning. Which one of the following changes would cause WebDAV to stop working?
A. A DSAPI filter was enabled.
B. Session Authentication was enabled.
C. POP3 was loaded on the same server.
D. Internet Site documents were created.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Karen wants to customize the data that is being transmitted to a HTTP browser request to improve the
performance of browser caching. What type of Web rule would she create?
A. Directory
B. Redirection
C. Substitution
D. HTTP Response Header
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have created substitution rules on your Domino Web server. However, you failed to include at least
one wildcard anywhere in the rule. What is the result of this action.?
A. Domino will send the user to the default home page for the Web server.
B. The Domino Web server will ignore the request from the browser session.
C. The user will receive an error code defined by the administrator in this rule.
D. The HTTP task automatically appends "/*" to the pattern when it stores the rule in its internal table.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Brent, the Domino Administrator, wants clients to be able to resume downloads if interrupted. He will
be using byte-range serving for clients that support it. What must he verify on document attachments so
that byte-range serving will function correctly?
A. Attachments must be decompressed.
B. Attachments must be HTTP enabled.
C. Attachments must have the extension .zip.
D. Attachments must have the extension .brs.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Margaret has edited the Web Site configuration document to enable users to see the realm "Sales" in
the authentication dialog. Which of the following fields were modified?
A. Description
B. Directory or file path
C. Realm name returned to browser
D. Realm label returned to browser
Answer: D

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NO.16 Marshall, the Domino administrator, has enabled multi-server session authentication (MSSO), but it is
not functioning properly. Which of the following is necessary for him to complete for SSO to be enabled
properly?
A. Create a Web SSO Configuration document.
B. Remove the HTTP task from the server notes.ini file.
C. Remove the full DNS server name in the host name field of the Web Site or Server document.
D. Choose Disabled in the Web Site document to prevent cookies from being used by the Domino server
for authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When the LDAP service cannot find information for which an LDAP client is searching, it can return a
referral to the client. What Domino service does it utilize to provide this referral?
A. MAPS
B. Referrer
C. Replicator
D. Directory Assistance
Answer: D

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NO.18 An LDAP client can specify a search base when searching a directory. A search base performs what
function?
A. It tells the LDAP service what view to search.
B. It limits the scope of a search by specifying a point in the directory tree at which to begin.
C. It provides the LDAP service with a username and password for searching a directory securely.
D. It limits the LDAP search to specific local address books that are encrypted using the current user ID
file.
Answer: B

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NO.19 WebDAV allows users to do which of the following?
A. Configure SSL via a Web browser.
B. Edit and manage files on remote Web servers.
C. Edit and manage files on their Notes client.
D. Set ACLs in Domino databases via the Web browser.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Chartrise has created a Directory Rule to map the location of a Domino database. The rule is not
functioning correctly. What is the cause of the failure?
A. The Domino server task Rules is not loaded.
B. Directory rules are only used for name lookup and authentication.
C. Directory Rules are a scheduled event and the rule has not been processed.
D. Directory rules can only be used to map the location of files that are to be read directly.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-379
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebShpere Integration Developer V6.2,Solution Developme)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An integration developer is developing a solution which must make use of an existing Web service. The
Web service provider sent a complete WSDL (including XSDs, port types, bindings) for allowing the
solution to consume it.
How can the developer create the corresponding Interface and Web Service Port on WebSphere
Integration Developer?
A. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service), which automatically will create Web
service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
B. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service) in order to get the correct Web Service
Port, then manually create the Interface according to the provider Web service characteristics
C. Import the WSDL file (Import wizard, General ? File System), open the WSDL with the WSDL editor
and use the information in it to create Web Service Port and Interface
D. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), then manually create Web
Service Port
E. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), which automatically will
create Web Service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
Answer: E

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which statement correctly describes the configuration?
A. It is not possible for Snippet4 and Snippet 6 to run in parallel.
B. Snippet6 and Snippet8 can run in parallel.
C. The business process contains a deadlock.
D. The process will not compile if it is configured to be short running.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to invoke a business service. This
service is going to be replaced in a certain known date and time, when a new third party provider will take
ownership of it, honoring a three year contract which starts right at that date. Old and new services do not
differ in terms of their interface.
What is the best way to implement the business process binding to the services?
A. Configure and invoke a Selector for switching services at the specific date and time.
B. Configure and invoke Selector for switching services at the specific date and time, using a mediation
for request routing.
C. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes to the old or new service depending on the request time.
D. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes the request to a Selector, which must be configured for
switching services at the specific date and time.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A BPEL process is in an SCA module which as been configured to depend on a Java project. The
Java project contains a JAR file and that JAR file is set up as a library in the Java class path properties of
the Java project.
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Assets in the JAR will be shared by-copy.
B. Assets in the JAR will be shared by-reference.
C. Deep nesting of the JAR file creates an unsupported circular reference.
D. References to classes in the JAR file within a Java snippet will result in compilation errors.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which activities require usage of a long-running process?
A. Wait
B. Receive Choice
C. Collaboration Scope
D. Asynchronous invocation
E. More than one Receive or Receive Choice activity.
Answer: AE

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NO.6 An integration developer is implementing a solution and needs to create a Business Object "Customer"
using Java snippets.
What is the correct way to accomplish this task?
A. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.Service to create a Customer BODataObject, which is a Business Object,
in the appropriate namespace.
B. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.Service to get BOFactory and use BOFactory to create the Customer
Business Object in the appropriate namespace.
C. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.ServiceManager to create a Customer BODataObject, which is a
Business Object, in the appropriate namespace.
D. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.ServiceManager to get BOFactory and use BOFactory to create the
Customer Business Object in the appropriate namespace.
Answer: D

IBM exam dumps   000-379   000-379   000-379

NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
An integration developer has designed and implemented business objects like the ones in the Exhibit.
Assuming the integration developer needs to write a service as a Java component which needs to read
the first ordered item warehouse, which one of the following code fragments is appropriate (assume order
is a DataObject which actually stores the order)?
A. order.get("orderedItems[0]/warehouseId")
B. ((DataObject)order.get ("orderedItems")[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
C. (((DataObject[])order.get("orderedItems"))[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
D. ((DataObject)order.getList("orderedItems").get(0)).getInt("warehouseId")}
Answer: D

IBM questions   000-379 original questions   000-379

NO.8 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to poll an FTP server for detecting a
specific CSV file creation. As the file gets created, it must be parsed and its data must be stored in a
Business Object. This Business Object is then processed in the Business Process according to the
process logic.
How would the integration developer most effectively implement this?
A. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and XSLT primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
B. Develop a Web service wrapping the FTP protocol and invoke it through a mediation which uses XSLT
primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
C. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and Business Object Map primitives to convert the CSV file to a
Business Object.
D. Use the FTP Adapter combined with a data handler responsible for transforming from the file content to
the Business Object.
Answer: D

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NO.9 An integration developer has been given the task of training a group of new developers who have no
experience with WebSphere Integration Developer.
Which statements are most likely to be included in the training presentation introducing human task and
their usage in WebSphere Integration Developer?
A. Stand-alone tasks are invoked as a service and can invoke other services.
B. Stand-alone tasks do not have direct access to process-related information.
C. Inline human tasks are SCA component activity.
D. Inline human tasks can not be used to create human task for process administration.
E. Inline tasks can not be used to apply permissions to BPEL activities like invoke, receive etc.
Answer: AB

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NO.10 A solution developer is planning the design of a web based music catalog that allows users to listen to
music via an online streaming feature, or to purchase individual selections for download.
What approach would the solution developer take when organizing the work in WebSphere Integration
Developer in order to maximize the reuse potential of the solution?
A. Place the streaming logic in one module and the download logic in a separate module, then place the
common interface files in a library.
B. Place the streaming logic and the download logic in the same integration solution, then place the
interface files in separate libraries.
C. Use two libraries to keep the interfaces of both services separate, then place the application logic of
both services into a single module.
D. Use a single integration solution to store and deploy the entire application, then separate the backend
logic into separate modules.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-550
Exam Name: IBM (IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A solidDB disk-based database instance has been optimally running for six months and starts to
experience major degradation in performance. Upon executing an overall DB status report using ADMIN
COMMAND "status", it is noted that the value for index writes after last merge is at
20945876. Why would this be a probable cause of the performance degradation?
A. A large value for this counter signifies that the creation of indices, after a large batch insert
process, has been halted leading to excessive memory usage which can cause serious
performance issues.
B. A large value for this counter signifies that a large number of transactions are being
checkpointed which can cause serious performance issues.
C. A large value for this counter signifies that the multi-versioning storage tree is not being flushed
to disk due to a long running transaction which can cause serious performance issues.
D. A large value for this counter signifies that a transaction performing a merge-join is utilizing a
large amount of memory causing potential process paging/swapping leading to serious
performance issues.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the correct setup topology when deploying IBM solidDB Universal Cache in conjunction
with IBM solidDB High Availability (HotStandby) functionality?
A. CDC for solidDB instances are running on both the Primary node and on the Secondary node,
each CDC instance locally connecting to one solidDB server.
B. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to both
Primary and Secondary solidDB servers.
C. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to the Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed using Advanced Replication.
D. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the Primary node, locally connecting to the Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed by transparent failover.
Answer: B

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NO.5 To set up solidDB in a standalone, HotStandby or Universal Cache configuration, where can the
configuration be performed?
A. The configuration is performed from the command line using the solid command with suitable
option settings and values.
B. The configuration needs to be set in a solid.ini file.
C. The configurations can be set up by using the solsql tool and the operating system services file.
D. The standalone configuration is set in the solid.ini file while the HotStandby and Universal
Cache configuration is set using the sqlcon tool.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.7 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 What are two methods for generating a trace file containing database statement executions
occurring in the solidDB server? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SQL tracing within the solidDB server.
B. Enable ODBC tracing within the solidDB ODBC driver.
C. Enable ODBC tracing within the ODBC Driver Manager.
D. Enable JDBC tracing within the solidDB JDBC driver.
E. Enable JDBC tracing within the JDBC Driver Manager.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What are two effective ways to increase the throughput of replication between the solidDB in-
memory cache and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Add a summarization column to the source.
B. Use multiple subscriptions instead of just one.
C. Update the mirror_commit_after_max_transactions parameter to a higher value.
D. Ensure that the conflict resolution mechanism is set to "source".
E. Use only the Mirror (Continuous) form of replication.
Answer: B,C

IBM certification   000-550   000-550   000-550

NO.11 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

IBM   000-550 answers real questions   000-550

NO.12 Which software components must be installed to deploy IBM solidDB Universal Cache and provide
access to data residing in an IBM DB2 database?
A. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM
InfoSphere CDC Access Server, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
B. IBM solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM Universal Cache for DB2,IBM InfoSphere CDC Replication Center,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
C. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC Access Server,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
D. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2, IBM
InfoSphere CDC Replication Center, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.13 To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

IBM test   000-550 test answers   000-550   000-550 original questions

NO.14 You have setup solidDB Universal Cache such that you have a table DBA.ORG in the solidDB
front-end, being mirrored to a back-end database. After some time, you notice that the
subscription is Inactive and you try to start Mirroring (Continuous). The subscription state remains
Inactive and the Event Log shows that the structure of table DBA.ORG has changed. What is the
recommended course of action?
A. In solidDB, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
B. In the backend database, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
C. In solidDB, change the table definition to what it was previously; then restart the subscription.
D. In the Management Console, use the 'Update table definition' option, for the source in the Table
Mappings area; then restart the subscription.
Answer: D

IBM exam dumps   000-550 original questions   000-550   000-550

NO.15 To execute the admin command "status", what is the correct syntax?
A. solsql -e "COMMAND 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
B. solsql -f "ADMIN STATUS 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
C. solcon "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
D. solcon -e "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
Answer: D

IBM certification training   000-550   000-550   000-550 questions

NO.16 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.17 It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within another script.
Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. &
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two are directly visible in solidDB server-side SQL Tracing? (Choose two.)
A. longest lasting statements in duration order
B. timestamps of statement preparation
C. timestamps of individual fetch operations
D. timestamps of individual rpc_session operations.
E. list of statements currently under execution
Answer: B,C

IBM   000-550 original questions   000-550 test questions   000-550   000-550 test

NO.19 To set the transaction log retention space size for solidDB Universal Cache in the solidDB
configuration file (solid.ini), which parameter is used?
A. [LogReader]
MaxLogSize
B. [Com]
ReadBufSize
C. [Hotstandby]
MaxMemLogSize
D. [indexFile]
CacheSize
Answer: A

IBM certification   000-550   000-550 test   000-550

NO.20 When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true about
transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)
A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).
B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).
C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).
D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).
E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: 000-130
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational ClearCase v7.1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user tries to log in to the CM server on ClearCase Remote Client, but receives an authentication
failure message.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The user's password has expired.
B. The user does not have log on as service?permission on the CM server.
C. The user does not have log on locally?permission on the CM server.
D. The user does not belong to the ClearCase group.
Answer: C

IBM   000-130   000-130 answers real questions

NO.4 What is a function of IBM Package Utility?
A. keeps track of packages that are about to be installed
B. updates and modifies packages that have been installed
C. uninstalls packages or rolls back to a previous version
D. creates an install repository for packages to be installed
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the update site location to install ClearCase Remote Client for Eclipse?
A. http://<cmserver>/clearcase/update
B. http://<cmserver>/ccrc
C. http://<cmserver>/ccrc/update
D. http://<cmserver>/teamserver/scm
Answer: C

IBM   000-130   000-130   000-130

NO.6 Which command should be used to change the backup registry server to the primary registry server?
A. rgy_backup
B. rgy_check
C. rgy_passwd
D. rgy_switchover
Answer: D

IBM   000-130 exam   000-130

NO.7 You are implementing a trigger to ensure users follow comment policy for all element checkin.
Which trigger option should you set?
A. pre-op trigger on CLEARCASE_COMMENT_POLICY
B. pre-op trigger on checkin
C. post-op trigger on checkin
D. pre-op trigger on checkout
Answer: B

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NO.8 How do you use a single release area, but configure different install options?
A. create multiple silent install response files based on configuration and use the appropriate response file
as input for a specific configuration
B. create multiple sitedef.dat files for different configurations and use the appropriate one as an argument
during install
C. create multiple config.xml files with different configurations and point Installation Manager to the
appropriate one during installation
D. edit the config.ini file to apply a specific configuration before install
Answer: A

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NO.9 When is the two step process of metadata creation combined into one step?
A. when creating attributes
B. when creating elements
C. when creating triggers
D. when creating labels
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of a user region map?
A. to allow users to access different VOBs that belong to different groups
B. to set the user's primary group on the CM Server
C. to enable specification of registry region, based on user or group
D. to override the user's primary group setting on the ClearCase Remote Client
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-033
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which information element is stored within the configuration management database as a repository
for incidents?
A.Sev 1
B.Change
C.Problem
D.Critical Situation
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which component is used to authenticate IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2 (TADDM) users if the customer's central LDAP registry component is Microsoft Active Directory?
A.TADDM Directory Server
B.TADDM file-based repository
C.WebSphere federated repositories
D.local password files on a TADDM server
Answer:C

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NO.3 What are the minimum CPU and RAM requirements for each IBM Tivoli Application Dependency
Discovery Manager V7.2 server for a small environment?
A.2 x 2.0 GHz CPU, 4 GB RAM
B.3 x 1.0 GHz CPU, 4 GB RAM
C.2 x 2.0 GHz CPU, 2 GB RAM
D.1 x 1.0 GHz CPU, 4 GB RAM
Answer:A

IBM   000-033   000-033   000-033   000-033 test questions

NO.4 What is the documented number of servers IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2 can support in a default installation?
A.10000
B.20000
C.30000
D.90000
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which components need to be considered during the design phase of an IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 deployment?
A.System Servers
B.Security Gateways
C.Enterprise Servers
D.Domain Controllers
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which components need to be considered during the design phase of an IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 deployment?
A.Domain Servers
B.Security Servers
C.Fail-over Gateways
D.Domain Controllers
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which three options are in the Discovery tab of the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery
Manager V7.2 Product Console Discovery pane? (Choose three.)
A.Scope
B.Reports
C.Baseline
D.Overview
E.Access List
F.Custom Server Extensions
Answer:ADE

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NO.8 Which two options are supported combinations for the product console and the domain manager?
(Choose two.)
A.Google Chrome for Solaris
B.Internet Explorer V7 for Windows
C.Firefox V3.0 for Linux and Windows
D.Internet Explorer V6 and V7 for Windows
E.Firefox V2.0 and Google Chrome for Solaris
Answer:BC

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NO.9 The customer has these requirements to integrate enterprise information with an IBM Tivoli
Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 (TADDM) database:
requires loose integration with existing management technology
uses an existing discovery scheduler
minimizes native environment interruptions
Which integration solution should be recommended?
A.TADDM API
B.Maximo Enterprise Adapter
C.Discovery Library Adapter
D.Tivoli Integration Composer
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which statement is true about the value proposition of a configuration management database?
A.It is an asset registration tool.
B.It is a change management system.
C.It holds all the information about an organization's computers.
D.It contains the details about an organization's elements used in the provisioning and management of its
IT services.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What is a prerequisite on a UNIX target before initiating the default Level 1 Discovery?
A.Install NMAP in all target systems.
B.This statement must be updated in sudoers file -> taddmuser ALL=(ALL) ALL.
C.This statement must be updated in sudoers file -> taddmuser ALL=(ALL) NOPASSWD:ALL.
D.Since this is a credential free discovery there is no need to prepare the target system.
Answer:D

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NO.12 What are the two modes in which Discovery Library Adapters can run? (Choose two.)
A.transient
B.persistent
C.long running
D.short running
E.non persistent
Answer:AC

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NO.13 Which valid registry type is used to authenticate IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery
Manager V7.2 users?
A.GSKit
B.b-tree
C.File-based
D.CORBA V1.0
Answer:C

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NO.14 What is the output of a discovery library adapter?
A.UML book
B.IdML book
C.HTML file
D.Jython file
Answer:B

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NO.15 What needs to be estimated during an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2
deployment?
A.The number of firewalls in the deployment.
B.The number of certificates required for authentication.
C.The number of configuration items that will be created.
D.The number of realms that will be required for each environment.
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which component type detects configuration information?
A.Prices
B.Life Cycles
C.Movements
D.Installation Types
Answer:C

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NO.17 A customer has provided lists of business applications and the names of the servers on which they run.
After comparing them to the scope of work, there are several differences between the lists. Which two
options resolve the differences? (Choose two.)
A.Work with the customer to reduce the number of servers associated to a business application.
B.Work with the customer to add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of
work.
C.Add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of work and submit the new
scope of work for approval.
D.Add the unlisted servers associated to a business application to the scope of work and submit a change
request with the customer.
E.Use the scope of work listing as the baseline to begin work and submit a change request for the
additional servers associated to a business application.
Answer:AB

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NO.18 Which user account is required in the LDAP registry for configuring access to IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2, its objects, and its services?
A.root
B.cmdbuser
C.taddmuser
D.administrator
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which directory lists all the files that match "efix*" to provide a list of fixes installed?
A.$COLLATION_HOME/etc
B.$COLLATION_HOME/efix
C.$COLLATION_HOME/patches
D.$COLLATION_HOME/etc/efix
Answer:A

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NO.20 What should be estimated when designing an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2 architecture?
A.The number of realms involved in the deployment.
B.The number of computer systems to be discovered.
C.The number of databases used in the architecture.
D.The number of routers that are deployed in the network.
Answer:B

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NO.21 What are three ways to control access to configuration items in IBM Tivoli Application Dependency
Discovery Manager V7.2? (Choose three.)
A.roles
B.sensors
C.permissions
D.person groups
E.security groups
F.access collections
Answer:ACF

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NO.22 What is the correct parameter setting used to point the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery
Manager V7.2 server to a database called "cmdb"?
A.com.collation.db.url=jdbc:db2://taddmserver.co.uk:5000
B.com.collation.db.url=jdbc:db2://taddmserver.co.uk:5000@cmdb
C.com.collation.db.url.cmdb=jdbc:db2://taddmserver.co.uk:50000
D.com.collation.db.url=jdbc:db2://taddmserver.co.uk:50000/cmdb
Answer:D

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NO.23 A discovery is required for multiple separated network segments secured by a firewall. Which steps
ensure IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 (TADDM) can perform a default Level
1 Discovery for all segments?
A.Determine network requirements, modify network routing and firewall rules, configure anchors and
gateways, and define a TADDM scope for all segments.
B.Plan the data collection approach, determine requirements for server, application and network, and
modify network routing and firewall rules for each segment.
C.Plan the data collection approach, determine server and network requirements, modify network routing
and firewall rules for all segments, and define a TADDM scope for each segment.
D.Plan the data collection approach, determine network requirements, modify firewall rules, configure
anchors and gateways, and select a firewall sensor to include in the default Level 1 Discovery.
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which security policy knowledge is required when designing an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency
Discovery Manager V7.2 architecture?
A.Authentication methods.
B.Database encryption requirements.
C.The number of configuration items that will be in the system.
D.The number of servers that will require fail-over capabilities.
Answer:A

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NO.25 Which supported database stores information collected during the discovery process for IBM Tivoli
Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2?
A.MySQL
B.Oracle 9i
C.SQL Server
D.DB2 Version 7
Answer:B

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NO.26 What has to be taken into account in a high security environment where many firewalls are involved
and could block network protocols used by IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2
(TADDM)?
A.The use of proxy agents for all communications.
B.The use of anchor servers in each security realm.
C.The use of proxy agents for the Windows gateway servers.
D.Communication problems if the UDP ports are not open for TADDM protocols.
Answer:B

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NO.27 Which command can be executed on an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager server
to verify that WMI has been correctly configured on a Windows gateway server?
A.execgw.jy/execgw.bat
B.execwmi.jy/execwmi.bat
C.testwmi.jy/testwmi.bat
D.wmitest.py/wmitest.bat
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which user account is required in the Active Directory registry for configuring access to IBM Tivoli
Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2, its objects, and its services?
A.root
B.cmdbuser
C.taddmuser
D.administrator
Answer:D

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NO.29 Which feature of IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2 is used to support
multiple customer environments and restrict access to customer data?
A.Sensor Seeding
B.Access Collections
C.Logical Architecture Diagrams
D.Custom Application Templates
Answer:B

IBM   000-033 test questions   000-033

NO.30 If a customer wants to discover a Microsoft Exchange Server running on a Windows server using
default Level 3 Discovery, which access credentials in the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery
Manager V7.2 (TADDM) access list will allow discovery of the Microsoft Exchange Server?
A.User name and password of an administrator for the Microsoft Exchange Server should be specified as
Access Credentials for a Component Type 'Mail Servers' in the Access List.
B.Component Type 'Messaging Servers' with Vendor 'Microsoft Exchange Server' when the TADDM
service account for Windows does not have full permissions to the appropriate WMI namespaces.
C.User name and password of a user with read access to the Microsoft Exchange Server should be
specified as Access Credentials for a Component Type 'Mail Servers' in the TADDM Access List.
D.An entry for Component Type 'Mail Servers' must be added to the Access List with Vendor 'Microsoft
Exchange Server' selected, also specifying the WMI namespaces for Microsoft Exchange Servers.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: AX0-100
Exam Name: Axis (Axis Network Video Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Axis recommends shielded cables for outdoor installations primarily to ensure
A. Image quality.
B. Surge protection.
C. Life time of cable installations.
D. Conformity with SMPTE standard.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.3 In a network surveillance installation, the purpose of a router is to
A. Forward the video stream between networks.
B. Forward the video stream to the correct receiver within a network.
C. Separate audio and video traffic to reduce audio latency.
D. Separate the video stream from the camera control signaling.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is an impact on cameras that are operating above their specified temperature limit?
A. Noise is increased
B. Frame rate is reduced
C. Light sensitivity is decreased
D. Resolution is reduced
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.7 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.8 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the main purpose of the Arctic Temperature Control functionality.?
A. To protect the camera electronics
B. To protect the camera mechanics
C. To protect the camera lens
D. To protect the camera power
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following allows customer to access between 2-4 channels of live and online stored video
at any time?
A. AXIS Camera Station
B. AXIS Video Hosting System (AVHS)
C. AXIS Camera Management
D. AXIS Media Control
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following are outdoor rated products? (Choose two)
A. AXIS M3114-R
B. AXIS P3304-VR
C. AXIS P1344-E
D. AXIS P3344-VE
E. AXIS M1031-W
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which statement is true regarding H.264 and Motion JPEG?
A. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at high frame rates
B. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only scene complexity
C. Bandwidth savings using H.264 has nothing to do with frame rate, only Group of Video (GOV) setting
D. The highest bandwidth savings using H.264 compared to Motion JPEG is at low frame rates
Answer: A

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NO.13 In many places 24 V AC has been popular as a power source but now 12 V and 24 V DC is increasing in
popularity because
A. There is more energy in DC.
B. It is easier to back-up DC with battery.
C. There is less power loss in cables with DC.
D. There is less risk for surge with DC.
Answer: B

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NO.14 DRAG DROP
Match each function to the correct video surveillance system component. Drag each gray box from the left
column to the matching blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.15 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Match the protocol to its default port number. Drag each gray box from the left column to the matching
blue box in the right column.
Answer:

NO.17 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following will allow a customer to have a PTZ camera automatically change between
three predefined positions?
A. Configure the camera's I/O ports to control the preset positions
B. Use the Guard Tour capability to switch between the preset positions
C. Switch between the predefined positions using a joystick
D. Use the auto tracking capability to switch between the preset positions
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which setting would best adjust a hard yellow tint as shown in the pictures below?
A. Image contrast
B. White balance
C. Color saturation
D. Image brightness
Answer: B

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